Dfyjkt

Today I've applied for a Schengen visa to France in TLScontact centre in London. My first trip is in March to Netherlands for 3 days and the next one is in June to France for 6 days.

My good friend suggested me to save money and to apply for the one Schengen visa that covers both trips in the Embassy of the Main destination country (which in my case is France).

However, today my application have been questioned by TLScontact. I've got a comment that there is a high risk that it could be failed and I won't get the visa at all. And the reason is that there is a gap of 1 month between the trips and the country of entry is not France but Netherlands. And the fact that I directly ask for the visa that covers both of my trips and provide all bought tickets and hotels reservations both in Paris and Amsterdam plays against me.

I've been told that there are 3 possible outcomes for my case:
1) I will get a visa since March, so I will be able to travel to Netherlands too.
2) I will get a visa since June, and the document for the trip to Amsterdam will be simply ignored.
3) The visa will be rejected and there is a high risk for this result.

Q1: What do you think is a possible result I should be ready for?

Q2: Why would they reject my visa if I openly provide all the documents and everything is legal and clear?

Q3: Is it possible that there could be different rules for the Embassies of different countries but which are in the same Schengen zone?

Back story: My friend (also based in UK) followed the same procedure to travel first to Spain(4 days) and then to Poland (7 days) with the gap between the travels of 3 months!
When in Spanish Embassy she asked whether it was possible to get a longer visa since in 3 months after her trip to Spain she had a plan to go to Poland, she was suggested to apply via Polish Embassy because her stay in Poland supposed to be longer. There was no problems or comments in Polish Embassy and 2 weeks after she got her multiple-entry Polish Schengen Visa with the date of enter 3 months earlier than her supposed trip to Poland, just because she informed them about her planned trip to Spain. She was also told in both Embassies that if the gap between planned trips to Schengen countries doesn't exceed 3 months it's possible to apply for the multiple visa that covers both trips. And it has to be done via the Embassy of the Main country (with longest stay).

Q4: Have you heard about these rules? I couldn't find any official data in web. Would be highly appreciate if you share.

In principle, I don't see how this could lead to a refusal, i.e. a negative decision. I don't see any basis for that in the regulation and can't see what refusal reason would apply. On the other hand, it's perfectly reasonable for the consulate to refuse to regard this as a single trip. You are kind of stretching the definition of a trip to save yourself a bit of trouble and they don't really have to go along with this.

But, in my view, the logical conclusion would then be to either issue a visa for the French part of the plan only or to decline to consider the application at all (because the French consulate is not competent for trips to Spain). In the latter case, you would not get any visa but should get your application fee and all your documents back and could reapply immediately, with no prejudice. That's very different from a refusal.

Finally, the bit about a "gap under three months" you heard from your friend is at most an informal tolerance from those embassies. The actual rules (i.e. the Schengen visa code) do not differ between embassies and say nothing about that. They mostly deal with single trips. Implicitly, if you want to do another trip and you don't have a multiple-entry visa, then you simply have to apply for a fresh visa.