Logic behind bitwise operators in C
Logic behind bitwise operators in C
I came across bitwise operations in C programming, and I realized that XOR operator can be used to swap 2 numbers in their binary bases. For example let $$i=(65)_10=(1000001)_2, text and j=(120)_10=(1111000)_2$$.
Let $oplus$ be the XOR operator, then observe that if I started with any one of them, say $i$ and following the following procedure:
1)replace its value with the $oplus$ value, yielding $$i=(0111001)_2,j=(1111000)_2$$
2) replace the other variable($j$) with another $oplus$ value derived from the new $i$ and old $j$, yielding $$i=(0111001)_2,j=(1000001)_2$$
3)replace the original variable $i$ with $oplus$ value again, yielding $$i=(1111000)_2,j=(1000001)_2$$
which shows that we would somehow have their values swapped. I found this way of programming online and I definitely can’t understand how people think of the logic aspect of this. I would think it’s linked to the truth table as follows, which shows by division of cases that the values can be swapped.

However, I am still uncertain about the full reasoning why this works, like whether there is any mathematical theorems that I should know that can aid me in my understanding.
PS: Sorry if the question is off-topic here, it feels like a programming question, but I feel that I more concerned about the “logic” rather than the programming. I also drew the table myself on MS word since I can't get the latex one to work somehow.
i
j
@HenningMakholm ah ok noted, applying it 3 times has the same effect as applying 1 time and that will cause one of the values to be full of zeroes
– Prashin Jeevaganth
Sep 2 at 14:03
It works for $i = j$ too.
– mbjoe
Sep 2 at 14:11
@mbjoe oh ok just noticed
– Prashin Jeevaganth
Sep 2 at 15:09
@mbjoe: It works for
i and j having the same value, but not for them being the same variable.– celtschk
Sep 2 at 15:59
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j
3 Answers
3
In algebraic terms, the XOR operator (or $oplus$) is nothing other than addition modulo $2$: use $1$ and $0$ for true and false, along with $1 oplus 1 = 0$.
Now, since addition modulo $2$ is associative and commutative, and both elements are their own inverses, we have
$$beginalign
d &= b oplus c\
&= b oplus (a oplus b)\
&= b oplus (b oplus a)\
&= (b oplus b) oplus a\
&= a.\
endalign$$
We can show $e = b$ using similar reasoning.
I prefer this to the accepted answer, since it mentions associativity and commutativity. Also, while obvious, I imagine the note that XOR is the same as addition modulo 2, might be helpful to readers.
– Demosthenes
Sep 3 at 11:33
Note that you can do the same thing without bitwise operators (at least for unsigned integer types since they can't overflow into undefined behavior):
// i == x j == y
i += j; // i == x+y j == y
j -= i; // i == x+y j == -x
i += j; // i == y j == -x
j = -j; // i == y j == x
Now if we do this bit for bit, but modulo 2 instead of modulo UINT_MAX+1, the XOR operation implements both addition and subtraction, and the final negation is a no-op because $-1equiv 1$ and $-0equiv 0 pmod 2$. So what is left in the bitwise version is exactly
UINT_MAX+1
i ^= j; j ^= i; i ^= j;
Thanks for the alternative solution to swap 2 numbers, this is insightful.
– Prashin Jeevaganth
Sep 2 at 14:08
You already answered your question, but if you want an algebraic explanation note that for any $x$:
$$x oplus 0 = x$$
$$x oplus x = 0$$
So:
$$i_0 = i, j_0 = j$$
$$i_1 = i_0 oplus j_0, j_1 = j_0$$
$$i_2 = i_1, j_2 = i_1 oplus j_1 = i_0 oplus j_0 oplus j_0 = i_0$$
$$i_3 = i_2 oplus j_2 = i_1 oplus i_0 = i_0 oplus j_0 oplus i_0 = j_0, j_3 = j_2 = i_0$$
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Beware that this doesn't work if
iandjhappen to be the same variable!– Henning Makholm
Sep 2 at 13:59