Can Airline Legally Refuse Boarding for NO Reason?
Can an airline that serves North America (USA & Canada) and Western Europe (Schengen areas + UK) deny a passenger boarding for no reason at all?
I know airlines, especially in the USA, seem to have wide latitude in denying a passenger boarding. However I want to know if after taking your money an airline can legally refuse you boarding without any reason.
air-travel usa schengen uk passenger-rights
|
show 4 more comments
Can an airline that serves North America (USA & Canada) and Western Europe (Schengen areas + UK) deny a passenger boarding for no reason at all?
I know airlines, especially in the USA, seem to have wide latitude in denying a passenger boarding. However I want to know if after taking your money an airline can legally refuse you boarding without any reason.
air-travel usa schengen uk passenger-rights
9
I think 'without any reason'/'for no reason at all' are the wrong phrases. I think you mean 'for any reason'. And I think you're really asking 'for a reason that I don't think is valid.'
– mkennedy
Apr 10 '17 at 19:44
1
^What @mkennedy said. An airline is a business and a business generally wouldn't do anything that will harm their reputation unless they have a financial incentive to do so. An overbooked flight might fall under the "for a reason that I don't think is valid" category.
– nukeguy
Apr 10 '17 at 19:48
1
@mkennedy et al I don't mean any reason, because for example they cannot deny you boarding because you're Asian, or Old etc, those are covered by anti-discrimination laws. I mean can they just deny you without a reason. Maybe my phrasing is not the best however I hope you get the idea as laid out in the body of the question. Any editing to clarify is welcome as always.
– Honorary World Citizen
Apr 10 '17 at 19:52
1
So what you're really asking is "If an airline denies boarding - do they have to tell me the reason?" ?
– brhans
Apr 10 '17 at 20:11
2
This question is entirely specious. There is no "consumer rights issue" with the UA situation. No, an airline would remove someone from a flight for some random reason. Why would they?
– Johns-305
Apr 11 '17 at 12:28
|
show 4 more comments
Can an airline that serves North America (USA & Canada) and Western Europe (Schengen areas + UK) deny a passenger boarding for no reason at all?
I know airlines, especially in the USA, seem to have wide latitude in denying a passenger boarding. However I want to know if after taking your money an airline can legally refuse you boarding without any reason.
air-travel usa schengen uk passenger-rights
Can an airline that serves North America (USA & Canada) and Western Europe (Schengen areas + UK) deny a passenger boarding for no reason at all?
I know airlines, especially in the USA, seem to have wide latitude in denying a passenger boarding. However I want to know if after taking your money an airline can legally refuse you boarding without any reason.
air-travel usa schengen uk passenger-rights
air-travel usa schengen uk passenger-rights
edited Apr 12 '17 at 4:01
Andy
4491313
4491313
asked Apr 10 '17 at 19:39
Honorary World Citizen
18.7k353103
18.7k353103
9
I think 'without any reason'/'for no reason at all' are the wrong phrases. I think you mean 'for any reason'. And I think you're really asking 'for a reason that I don't think is valid.'
– mkennedy
Apr 10 '17 at 19:44
1
^What @mkennedy said. An airline is a business and a business generally wouldn't do anything that will harm their reputation unless they have a financial incentive to do so. An overbooked flight might fall under the "for a reason that I don't think is valid" category.
– nukeguy
Apr 10 '17 at 19:48
1
@mkennedy et al I don't mean any reason, because for example they cannot deny you boarding because you're Asian, or Old etc, those are covered by anti-discrimination laws. I mean can they just deny you without a reason. Maybe my phrasing is not the best however I hope you get the idea as laid out in the body of the question. Any editing to clarify is welcome as always.
– Honorary World Citizen
Apr 10 '17 at 19:52
1
So what you're really asking is "If an airline denies boarding - do they have to tell me the reason?" ?
– brhans
Apr 10 '17 at 20:11
2
This question is entirely specious. There is no "consumer rights issue" with the UA situation. No, an airline would remove someone from a flight for some random reason. Why would they?
– Johns-305
Apr 11 '17 at 12:28
|
show 4 more comments
9
I think 'without any reason'/'for no reason at all' are the wrong phrases. I think you mean 'for any reason'. And I think you're really asking 'for a reason that I don't think is valid.'
– mkennedy
Apr 10 '17 at 19:44
1
^What @mkennedy said. An airline is a business and a business generally wouldn't do anything that will harm their reputation unless they have a financial incentive to do so. An overbooked flight might fall under the "for a reason that I don't think is valid" category.
– nukeguy
Apr 10 '17 at 19:48
1
@mkennedy et al I don't mean any reason, because for example they cannot deny you boarding because you're Asian, or Old etc, those are covered by anti-discrimination laws. I mean can they just deny you without a reason. Maybe my phrasing is not the best however I hope you get the idea as laid out in the body of the question. Any editing to clarify is welcome as always.
– Honorary World Citizen
Apr 10 '17 at 19:52
1
So what you're really asking is "If an airline denies boarding - do they have to tell me the reason?" ?
– brhans
Apr 10 '17 at 20:11
2
This question is entirely specious. There is no "consumer rights issue" with the UA situation. No, an airline would remove someone from a flight for some random reason. Why would they?
– Johns-305
Apr 11 '17 at 12:28
9
9
I think 'without any reason'/'for no reason at all' are the wrong phrases. I think you mean 'for any reason'. And I think you're really asking 'for a reason that I don't think is valid.'
– mkennedy
Apr 10 '17 at 19:44
I think 'without any reason'/'for no reason at all' are the wrong phrases. I think you mean 'for any reason'. And I think you're really asking 'for a reason that I don't think is valid.'
– mkennedy
Apr 10 '17 at 19:44
1
1
^What @mkennedy said. An airline is a business and a business generally wouldn't do anything that will harm their reputation unless they have a financial incentive to do so. An overbooked flight might fall under the "for a reason that I don't think is valid" category.
– nukeguy
Apr 10 '17 at 19:48
^What @mkennedy said. An airline is a business and a business generally wouldn't do anything that will harm their reputation unless they have a financial incentive to do so. An overbooked flight might fall under the "for a reason that I don't think is valid" category.
– nukeguy
Apr 10 '17 at 19:48
1
1
@mkennedy et al I don't mean any reason, because for example they cannot deny you boarding because you're Asian, or Old etc, those are covered by anti-discrimination laws. I mean can they just deny you without a reason. Maybe my phrasing is not the best however I hope you get the idea as laid out in the body of the question. Any editing to clarify is welcome as always.
– Honorary World Citizen
Apr 10 '17 at 19:52
@mkennedy et al I don't mean any reason, because for example they cannot deny you boarding because you're Asian, or Old etc, those are covered by anti-discrimination laws. I mean can they just deny you without a reason. Maybe my phrasing is not the best however I hope you get the idea as laid out in the body of the question. Any editing to clarify is welcome as always.
– Honorary World Citizen
Apr 10 '17 at 19:52
1
1
So what you're really asking is "If an airline denies boarding - do they have to tell me the reason?" ?
– brhans
Apr 10 '17 at 20:11
So what you're really asking is "If an airline denies boarding - do they have to tell me the reason?" ?
– brhans
Apr 10 '17 at 20:11
2
2
This question is entirely specious. There is no "consumer rights issue" with the UA situation. No, an airline would remove someone from a flight for some random reason. Why would they?
– Johns-305
Apr 11 '17 at 12:28
This question is entirely specious. There is no "consumer rights issue" with the UA situation. No, an airline would remove someone from a flight for some random reason. Why would they?
– Johns-305
Apr 11 '17 at 12:28
|
show 4 more comments
5 Answers
5
active
oldest
votes
Yes unfortunately airlines can refuse boarding or remove a passenger from a plane for any reason at all. Even of the passenger has paid full fare for the ticket. Passengers do not have many rights when it comes to being on an airline.
add a comment |
United contract of carriage has a list for
UA shall have the right to refuse to transport or shall have the right to remove from the aircraft at any point, any Passenger for the following reasons
including
Passengers who fail to comply with or interfere with the duties of the members of the flight crew,
Let me break this down to make it easier understand
Passengers who fail to comply with the members of the flight crew,
that is pretty close to "Simon says". And since US federal regulations have similar wordings, all other US airlines will be happy to kick you off if you don't do what the crew says (you might even get into prison for it).
6
It's Simon Says with a side order of Catch-22: if the flight attendant says "leave the plane", you either (1) comply, which you can only do by leaving the plane, or (2) don't comply, which grants them the right to force you to leave the plane.
– Pont
Apr 11 '17 at 8:53
#2 could include an expenses paid vacation to jail as well.
– Matthew Whited
Apr 11 '17 at 14:54
1
@Pont And since it is their plane, that seems pretty reasonable.
– Andy
Apr 12 '17 at 1:32
add a comment |
With regard to the EU, yes.
The EU regulation (261/2004) acknowledges that a passenger can be denied boarding against their will and sets out the rights of the passenger to compensation and accommodation, but does not restrict the airline in reasons for denying boarding against the passengers will.
The regulation also sets out situations in which the airlines liabilities are limited.
http://eur-lex.europa.eu/resource.html?uri=cellar:439cd3a7-fd3c-4da7-8bf4-b0f60600c1d6.0004.02/DOC_1&format=PDF
Comments are not for extended discussion; this conversation has been moved to chat.
– JoErNanO♦
Apr 12 '17 at 8:29
add a comment |
Can Airline Legally Refuse Boarding for NO Reason?
Technically, yes because the aircraft is private property. However, they would still be bound by the Contract of Carriage. But, the conditions are so broad that they will argue that any reason is covered by the CoC.
Operationally, no, because any denied boarding has to be logged and a 'reason' noted. But, that 'reason' can be as nebulous as concern by the flight crew.
add a comment |
In the United States, absolutely not. See, for example, 15 USC 45(a)(1) which says, "Unfair methods of competition in or affecting commerce, and unfair or deceptive acts or practices in or affecting commerce, are hereby declared unlawful.".
I challenge anyone to argue with a straight face that contracting to provide a service and then failing to provide it in the manner expected for no reason whatsoever, causing harm to the consumer despite being able to avoid that harm, is not unfair. You would have to argue that the word "unfair" means nothing at all.
In fact, this perfectly meets the standards for unfairness because:
1) It causes harm to consumers.
2) Consumers cannot reasonably avoid the harm.
3) It is not outweighed by any countervailing benefit.
That is essentially the legal test for whether a business practice is unfair.
Regardless of what the contract says, United States law prohibits a business from adopting a practice that causes unavoidable harm to consumers unless there is some benefit from that practice that outweighs the harm. In effect, it prohibits businesses from being manifestly unreasonable.
Comments are not for extended discussion; this conversation has been moved to chat.
– JoErNanO♦
Apr 11 '17 at 19:00
add a comment |
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5 Answers
5
active
oldest
votes
5 Answers
5
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
Yes unfortunately airlines can refuse boarding or remove a passenger from a plane for any reason at all. Even of the passenger has paid full fare for the ticket. Passengers do not have many rights when it comes to being on an airline.
add a comment |
Yes unfortunately airlines can refuse boarding or remove a passenger from a plane for any reason at all. Even of the passenger has paid full fare for the ticket. Passengers do not have many rights when it comes to being on an airline.
add a comment |
Yes unfortunately airlines can refuse boarding or remove a passenger from a plane for any reason at all. Even of the passenger has paid full fare for the ticket. Passengers do not have many rights when it comes to being on an airline.
Yes unfortunately airlines can refuse boarding or remove a passenger from a plane for any reason at all. Even of the passenger has paid full fare for the ticket. Passengers do not have many rights when it comes to being on an airline.
answered Apr 12 '17 at 4:56
Oremo Ochillo
361
361
add a comment |
add a comment |
United contract of carriage has a list for
UA shall have the right to refuse to transport or shall have the right to remove from the aircraft at any point, any Passenger for the following reasons
including
Passengers who fail to comply with or interfere with the duties of the members of the flight crew,
Let me break this down to make it easier understand
Passengers who fail to comply with the members of the flight crew,
that is pretty close to "Simon says". And since US federal regulations have similar wordings, all other US airlines will be happy to kick you off if you don't do what the crew says (you might even get into prison for it).
6
It's Simon Says with a side order of Catch-22: if the flight attendant says "leave the plane", you either (1) comply, which you can only do by leaving the plane, or (2) don't comply, which grants them the right to force you to leave the plane.
– Pont
Apr 11 '17 at 8:53
#2 could include an expenses paid vacation to jail as well.
– Matthew Whited
Apr 11 '17 at 14:54
1
@Pont And since it is their plane, that seems pretty reasonable.
– Andy
Apr 12 '17 at 1:32
add a comment |
United contract of carriage has a list for
UA shall have the right to refuse to transport or shall have the right to remove from the aircraft at any point, any Passenger for the following reasons
including
Passengers who fail to comply with or interfere with the duties of the members of the flight crew,
Let me break this down to make it easier understand
Passengers who fail to comply with the members of the flight crew,
that is pretty close to "Simon says". And since US federal regulations have similar wordings, all other US airlines will be happy to kick you off if you don't do what the crew says (you might even get into prison for it).
6
It's Simon Says with a side order of Catch-22: if the flight attendant says "leave the plane", you either (1) comply, which you can only do by leaving the plane, or (2) don't comply, which grants them the right to force you to leave the plane.
– Pont
Apr 11 '17 at 8:53
#2 could include an expenses paid vacation to jail as well.
– Matthew Whited
Apr 11 '17 at 14:54
1
@Pont And since it is their plane, that seems pretty reasonable.
– Andy
Apr 12 '17 at 1:32
add a comment |
United contract of carriage has a list for
UA shall have the right to refuse to transport or shall have the right to remove from the aircraft at any point, any Passenger for the following reasons
including
Passengers who fail to comply with or interfere with the duties of the members of the flight crew,
Let me break this down to make it easier understand
Passengers who fail to comply with the members of the flight crew,
that is pretty close to "Simon says". And since US federal regulations have similar wordings, all other US airlines will be happy to kick you off if you don't do what the crew says (you might even get into prison for it).
United contract of carriage has a list for
UA shall have the right to refuse to transport or shall have the right to remove from the aircraft at any point, any Passenger for the following reasons
including
Passengers who fail to comply with or interfere with the duties of the members of the flight crew,
Let me break this down to make it easier understand
Passengers who fail to comply with the members of the flight crew,
that is pretty close to "Simon says". And since US federal regulations have similar wordings, all other US airlines will be happy to kick you off if you don't do what the crew says (you might even get into prison for it).
answered Apr 11 '17 at 4:18
chx
37k376183
37k376183
6
It's Simon Says with a side order of Catch-22: if the flight attendant says "leave the plane", you either (1) comply, which you can only do by leaving the plane, or (2) don't comply, which grants them the right to force you to leave the plane.
– Pont
Apr 11 '17 at 8:53
#2 could include an expenses paid vacation to jail as well.
– Matthew Whited
Apr 11 '17 at 14:54
1
@Pont And since it is their plane, that seems pretty reasonable.
– Andy
Apr 12 '17 at 1:32
add a comment |
6
It's Simon Says with a side order of Catch-22: if the flight attendant says "leave the plane", you either (1) comply, which you can only do by leaving the plane, or (2) don't comply, which grants them the right to force you to leave the plane.
– Pont
Apr 11 '17 at 8:53
#2 could include an expenses paid vacation to jail as well.
– Matthew Whited
Apr 11 '17 at 14:54
1
@Pont And since it is their plane, that seems pretty reasonable.
– Andy
Apr 12 '17 at 1:32
6
6
It's Simon Says with a side order of Catch-22: if the flight attendant says "leave the plane", you either (1) comply, which you can only do by leaving the plane, or (2) don't comply, which grants them the right to force you to leave the plane.
– Pont
Apr 11 '17 at 8:53
It's Simon Says with a side order of Catch-22: if the flight attendant says "leave the plane", you either (1) comply, which you can only do by leaving the plane, or (2) don't comply, which grants them the right to force you to leave the plane.
– Pont
Apr 11 '17 at 8:53
#2 could include an expenses paid vacation to jail as well.
– Matthew Whited
Apr 11 '17 at 14:54
#2 could include an expenses paid vacation to jail as well.
– Matthew Whited
Apr 11 '17 at 14:54
1
1
@Pont And since it is their plane, that seems pretty reasonable.
– Andy
Apr 12 '17 at 1:32
@Pont And since it is their plane, that seems pretty reasonable.
– Andy
Apr 12 '17 at 1:32
add a comment |
With regard to the EU, yes.
The EU regulation (261/2004) acknowledges that a passenger can be denied boarding against their will and sets out the rights of the passenger to compensation and accommodation, but does not restrict the airline in reasons for denying boarding against the passengers will.
The regulation also sets out situations in which the airlines liabilities are limited.
http://eur-lex.europa.eu/resource.html?uri=cellar:439cd3a7-fd3c-4da7-8bf4-b0f60600c1d6.0004.02/DOC_1&format=PDF
Comments are not for extended discussion; this conversation has been moved to chat.
– JoErNanO♦
Apr 12 '17 at 8:29
add a comment |
With regard to the EU, yes.
The EU regulation (261/2004) acknowledges that a passenger can be denied boarding against their will and sets out the rights of the passenger to compensation and accommodation, but does not restrict the airline in reasons for denying boarding against the passengers will.
The regulation also sets out situations in which the airlines liabilities are limited.
http://eur-lex.europa.eu/resource.html?uri=cellar:439cd3a7-fd3c-4da7-8bf4-b0f60600c1d6.0004.02/DOC_1&format=PDF
Comments are not for extended discussion; this conversation has been moved to chat.
– JoErNanO♦
Apr 12 '17 at 8:29
add a comment |
With regard to the EU, yes.
The EU regulation (261/2004) acknowledges that a passenger can be denied boarding against their will and sets out the rights of the passenger to compensation and accommodation, but does not restrict the airline in reasons for denying boarding against the passengers will.
The regulation also sets out situations in which the airlines liabilities are limited.
http://eur-lex.europa.eu/resource.html?uri=cellar:439cd3a7-fd3c-4da7-8bf4-b0f60600c1d6.0004.02/DOC_1&format=PDF
With regard to the EU, yes.
The EU regulation (261/2004) acknowledges that a passenger can be denied boarding against their will and sets out the rights of the passenger to compensation and accommodation, but does not restrict the airline in reasons for denying boarding against the passengers will.
The regulation also sets out situations in which the airlines liabilities are limited.
http://eur-lex.europa.eu/resource.html?uri=cellar:439cd3a7-fd3c-4da7-8bf4-b0f60600c1d6.0004.02/DOC_1&format=PDF
answered Apr 10 '17 at 20:06
Moo
14.2k35065
14.2k35065
Comments are not for extended discussion; this conversation has been moved to chat.
– JoErNanO♦
Apr 12 '17 at 8:29
add a comment |
Comments are not for extended discussion; this conversation has been moved to chat.
– JoErNanO♦
Apr 12 '17 at 8:29
Comments are not for extended discussion; this conversation has been moved to chat.
– JoErNanO♦
Apr 12 '17 at 8:29
Comments are not for extended discussion; this conversation has been moved to chat.
– JoErNanO♦
Apr 12 '17 at 8:29
add a comment |
Can Airline Legally Refuse Boarding for NO Reason?
Technically, yes because the aircraft is private property. However, they would still be bound by the Contract of Carriage. But, the conditions are so broad that they will argue that any reason is covered by the CoC.
Operationally, no, because any denied boarding has to be logged and a 'reason' noted. But, that 'reason' can be as nebulous as concern by the flight crew.
add a comment |
Can Airline Legally Refuse Boarding for NO Reason?
Technically, yes because the aircraft is private property. However, they would still be bound by the Contract of Carriage. But, the conditions are so broad that they will argue that any reason is covered by the CoC.
Operationally, no, because any denied boarding has to be logged and a 'reason' noted. But, that 'reason' can be as nebulous as concern by the flight crew.
add a comment |
Can Airline Legally Refuse Boarding for NO Reason?
Technically, yes because the aircraft is private property. However, they would still be bound by the Contract of Carriage. But, the conditions are so broad that they will argue that any reason is covered by the CoC.
Operationally, no, because any denied boarding has to be logged and a 'reason' noted. But, that 'reason' can be as nebulous as concern by the flight crew.
Can Airline Legally Refuse Boarding for NO Reason?
Technically, yes because the aircraft is private property. However, they would still be bound by the Contract of Carriage. But, the conditions are so broad that they will argue that any reason is covered by the CoC.
Operationally, no, because any denied boarding has to be logged and a 'reason' noted. But, that 'reason' can be as nebulous as concern by the flight crew.
edited Nov 16 at 11:23
Kate Gregory
58.4k10155254
58.4k10155254
answered Apr 11 '17 at 12:49
Johns-305
28k5696
28k5696
add a comment |
add a comment |
In the United States, absolutely not. See, for example, 15 USC 45(a)(1) which says, "Unfair methods of competition in or affecting commerce, and unfair or deceptive acts or practices in or affecting commerce, are hereby declared unlawful.".
I challenge anyone to argue with a straight face that contracting to provide a service and then failing to provide it in the manner expected for no reason whatsoever, causing harm to the consumer despite being able to avoid that harm, is not unfair. You would have to argue that the word "unfair" means nothing at all.
In fact, this perfectly meets the standards for unfairness because:
1) It causes harm to consumers.
2) Consumers cannot reasonably avoid the harm.
3) It is not outweighed by any countervailing benefit.
That is essentially the legal test for whether a business practice is unfair.
Regardless of what the contract says, United States law prohibits a business from adopting a practice that causes unavoidable harm to consumers unless there is some benefit from that practice that outweighs the harm. In effect, it prohibits businesses from being manifestly unreasonable.
Comments are not for extended discussion; this conversation has been moved to chat.
– JoErNanO♦
Apr 11 '17 at 19:00
add a comment |
In the United States, absolutely not. See, for example, 15 USC 45(a)(1) which says, "Unfair methods of competition in or affecting commerce, and unfair or deceptive acts or practices in or affecting commerce, are hereby declared unlawful.".
I challenge anyone to argue with a straight face that contracting to provide a service and then failing to provide it in the manner expected for no reason whatsoever, causing harm to the consumer despite being able to avoid that harm, is not unfair. You would have to argue that the word "unfair" means nothing at all.
In fact, this perfectly meets the standards for unfairness because:
1) It causes harm to consumers.
2) Consumers cannot reasonably avoid the harm.
3) It is not outweighed by any countervailing benefit.
That is essentially the legal test for whether a business practice is unfair.
Regardless of what the contract says, United States law prohibits a business from adopting a practice that causes unavoidable harm to consumers unless there is some benefit from that practice that outweighs the harm. In effect, it prohibits businesses from being manifestly unreasonable.
Comments are not for extended discussion; this conversation has been moved to chat.
– JoErNanO♦
Apr 11 '17 at 19:00
add a comment |
In the United States, absolutely not. See, for example, 15 USC 45(a)(1) which says, "Unfair methods of competition in or affecting commerce, and unfair or deceptive acts or practices in or affecting commerce, are hereby declared unlawful.".
I challenge anyone to argue with a straight face that contracting to provide a service and then failing to provide it in the manner expected for no reason whatsoever, causing harm to the consumer despite being able to avoid that harm, is not unfair. You would have to argue that the word "unfair" means nothing at all.
In fact, this perfectly meets the standards for unfairness because:
1) It causes harm to consumers.
2) Consumers cannot reasonably avoid the harm.
3) It is not outweighed by any countervailing benefit.
That is essentially the legal test for whether a business practice is unfair.
Regardless of what the contract says, United States law prohibits a business from adopting a practice that causes unavoidable harm to consumers unless there is some benefit from that practice that outweighs the harm. In effect, it prohibits businesses from being manifestly unreasonable.
In the United States, absolutely not. See, for example, 15 USC 45(a)(1) which says, "Unfair methods of competition in or affecting commerce, and unfair or deceptive acts or practices in or affecting commerce, are hereby declared unlawful.".
I challenge anyone to argue with a straight face that contracting to provide a service and then failing to provide it in the manner expected for no reason whatsoever, causing harm to the consumer despite being able to avoid that harm, is not unfair. You would have to argue that the word "unfair" means nothing at all.
In fact, this perfectly meets the standards for unfairness because:
1) It causes harm to consumers.
2) Consumers cannot reasonably avoid the harm.
3) It is not outweighed by any countervailing benefit.
That is essentially the legal test for whether a business practice is unfair.
Regardless of what the contract says, United States law prohibits a business from adopting a practice that causes unavoidable harm to consumers unless there is some benefit from that practice that outweighs the harm. In effect, it prohibits businesses from being manifestly unreasonable.
edited Apr 11 '17 at 18:15
answered Apr 11 '17 at 17:49
David Schwartz
976
976
Comments are not for extended discussion; this conversation has been moved to chat.
– JoErNanO♦
Apr 11 '17 at 19:00
add a comment |
Comments are not for extended discussion; this conversation has been moved to chat.
– JoErNanO♦
Apr 11 '17 at 19:00
Comments are not for extended discussion; this conversation has been moved to chat.
– JoErNanO♦
Apr 11 '17 at 19:00
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– JoErNanO♦
Apr 11 '17 at 19:00
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9
I think 'without any reason'/'for no reason at all' are the wrong phrases. I think you mean 'for any reason'. And I think you're really asking 'for a reason that I don't think is valid.'
– mkennedy
Apr 10 '17 at 19:44
1
^What @mkennedy said. An airline is a business and a business generally wouldn't do anything that will harm their reputation unless they have a financial incentive to do so. An overbooked flight might fall under the "for a reason that I don't think is valid" category.
– nukeguy
Apr 10 '17 at 19:48
1
@mkennedy et al I don't mean any reason, because for example they cannot deny you boarding because you're Asian, or Old etc, those are covered by anti-discrimination laws. I mean can they just deny you without a reason. Maybe my phrasing is not the best however I hope you get the idea as laid out in the body of the question. Any editing to clarify is welcome as always.
– Honorary World Citizen
Apr 10 '17 at 19:52
1
So what you're really asking is "If an airline denies boarding - do they have to tell me the reason?" ?
– brhans
Apr 10 '17 at 20:11
2
This question is entirely specious. There is no "consumer rights issue" with the UA situation. No, an airline would remove someone from a flight for some random reason. Why would they?
– Johns-305
Apr 11 '17 at 12:28