What is the abelianization of $langle x,y,zmid x^2=y^2z^2rangle?$









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Let $G=langle x,y,zmid x^2=y^2z^2rangle$.



What is the abelianization of this group?
(Also, is there a general method to calculate such abelianizations?)



Update: I know how to get a presentation of the abelianization by adding relations like $xy=yx$ and so on. However is it possible to express it as a direct sum of cyclic groups as per the fundamental theorem for finitely generated abelian groups?



Thanks.







share|cite|improve this question


















  • 2




    The given group is a quotient of the free group $F_3$ on three generators; consider it how it behaves under the abelianization map $F_3 to mathbbZ^3$. (Note, for example, that $G^ab$ is the maximal abelian quotient of $G$.)
    – anomaly
    Aug 20 at 2:27











  • @anomaly Thanks. I can get a presentation of the abelianization by adding relations like $xy=yx$ and so on. However is it possible to express it as a direct sum of cyclic groups as per the fundamental theorem for finitely generated abelian groups?
    – yoyostein
    Aug 20 at 2:44







  • 1




    keywords: Tietze transformations
    – janmarqz
    Aug 20 at 3:00






  • 1




    Do you know a proof for the fundamental theorem of finitely generated abelian groups? The one I know is very much of the flavor, "Give me a presentation for the abelian group, and I will decompose it into primitive factors" - maybe your proof does that too?
    – Milo Brandt
    Aug 20 at 3:12






  • 4




    @janmarqz I would say that the keywords here are not Tietze transformations, but Smith Normal Form.
    – Derek Holt
    Aug 20 at 7:08















up vote
8
down vote

favorite
3












Let $G=langle x,y,zmid x^2=y^2z^2rangle$.



What is the abelianization of this group?
(Also, is there a general method to calculate such abelianizations?)



Update: I know how to get a presentation of the abelianization by adding relations like $xy=yx$ and so on. However is it possible to express it as a direct sum of cyclic groups as per the fundamental theorem for finitely generated abelian groups?



Thanks.







share|cite|improve this question


















  • 2




    The given group is a quotient of the free group $F_3$ on three generators; consider it how it behaves under the abelianization map $F_3 to mathbbZ^3$. (Note, for example, that $G^ab$ is the maximal abelian quotient of $G$.)
    – anomaly
    Aug 20 at 2:27











  • @anomaly Thanks. I can get a presentation of the abelianization by adding relations like $xy=yx$ and so on. However is it possible to express it as a direct sum of cyclic groups as per the fundamental theorem for finitely generated abelian groups?
    – yoyostein
    Aug 20 at 2:44







  • 1




    keywords: Tietze transformations
    – janmarqz
    Aug 20 at 3:00






  • 1




    Do you know a proof for the fundamental theorem of finitely generated abelian groups? The one I know is very much of the flavor, "Give me a presentation for the abelian group, and I will decompose it into primitive factors" - maybe your proof does that too?
    – Milo Brandt
    Aug 20 at 3:12






  • 4




    @janmarqz I would say that the keywords here are not Tietze transformations, but Smith Normal Form.
    – Derek Holt
    Aug 20 at 7:08













up vote
8
down vote

favorite
3









up vote
8
down vote

favorite
3






3





Let $G=langle x,y,zmid x^2=y^2z^2rangle$.



What is the abelianization of this group?
(Also, is there a general method to calculate such abelianizations?)



Update: I know how to get a presentation of the abelianization by adding relations like $xy=yx$ and so on. However is it possible to express it as a direct sum of cyclic groups as per the fundamental theorem for finitely generated abelian groups?



Thanks.







share|cite|improve this question














Let $G=langle x,y,zmid x^2=y^2z^2rangle$.



What is the abelianization of this group?
(Also, is there a general method to calculate such abelianizations?)



Update: I know how to get a presentation of the abelianization by adding relations like $xy=yx$ and so on. However is it possible to express it as a direct sum of cyclic groups as per the fundamental theorem for finitely generated abelian groups?



Thanks.









share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




share|cite|improve this question








edited Aug 21 at 1:17









Shaun

7,43292972




7,43292972










asked Aug 20 at 2:22









yoyostein

7,46063366




7,46063366







  • 2




    The given group is a quotient of the free group $F_3$ on three generators; consider it how it behaves under the abelianization map $F_3 to mathbbZ^3$. (Note, for example, that $G^ab$ is the maximal abelian quotient of $G$.)
    – anomaly
    Aug 20 at 2:27











  • @anomaly Thanks. I can get a presentation of the abelianization by adding relations like $xy=yx$ and so on. However is it possible to express it as a direct sum of cyclic groups as per the fundamental theorem for finitely generated abelian groups?
    – yoyostein
    Aug 20 at 2:44







  • 1




    keywords: Tietze transformations
    – janmarqz
    Aug 20 at 3:00






  • 1




    Do you know a proof for the fundamental theorem of finitely generated abelian groups? The one I know is very much of the flavor, "Give me a presentation for the abelian group, and I will decompose it into primitive factors" - maybe your proof does that too?
    – Milo Brandt
    Aug 20 at 3:12






  • 4




    @janmarqz I would say that the keywords here are not Tietze transformations, but Smith Normal Form.
    – Derek Holt
    Aug 20 at 7:08













  • 2




    The given group is a quotient of the free group $F_3$ on three generators; consider it how it behaves under the abelianization map $F_3 to mathbbZ^3$. (Note, for example, that $G^ab$ is the maximal abelian quotient of $G$.)
    – anomaly
    Aug 20 at 2:27











  • @anomaly Thanks. I can get a presentation of the abelianization by adding relations like $xy=yx$ and so on. However is it possible to express it as a direct sum of cyclic groups as per the fundamental theorem for finitely generated abelian groups?
    – yoyostein
    Aug 20 at 2:44







  • 1




    keywords: Tietze transformations
    – janmarqz
    Aug 20 at 3:00






  • 1




    Do you know a proof for the fundamental theorem of finitely generated abelian groups? The one I know is very much of the flavor, "Give me a presentation for the abelian group, and I will decompose it into primitive factors" - maybe your proof does that too?
    – Milo Brandt
    Aug 20 at 3:12






  • 4




    @janmarqz I would say that the keywords here are not Tietze transformations, but Smith Normal Form.
    – Derek Holt
    Aug 20 at 7:08








2




2




The given group is a quotient of the free group $F_3$ on three generators; consider it how it behaves under the abelianization map $F_3 to mathbbZ^3$. (Note, for example, that $G^ab$ is the maximal abelian quotient of $G$.)
– anomaly
Aug 20 at 2:27





The given group is a quotient of the free group $F_3$ on three generators; consider it how it behaves under the abelianization map $F_3 to mathbbZ^3$. (Note, for example, that $G^ab$ is the maximal abelian quotient of $G$.)
– anomaly
Aug 20 at 2:27













@anomaly Thanks. I can get a presentation of the abelianization by adding relations like $xy=yx$ and so on. However is it possible to express it as a direct sum of cyclic groups as per the fundamental theorem for finitely generated abelian groups?
– yoyostein
Aug 20 at 2:44





@anomaly Thanks. I can get a presentation of the abelianization by adding relations like $xy=yx$ and so on. However is it possible to express it as a direct sum of cyclic groups as per the fundamental theorem for finitely generated abelian groups?
– yoyostein
Aug 20 at 2:44





1




1




keywords: Tietze transformations
– janmarqz
Aug 20 at 3:00




keywords: Tietze transformations
– janmarqz
Aug 20 at 3:00




1




1




Do you know a proof for the fundamental theorem of finitely generated abelian groups? The one I know is very much of the flavor, "Give me a presentation for the abelian group, and I will decompose it into primitive factors" - maybe your proof does that too?
– Milo Brandt
Aug 20 at 3:12




Do you know a proof for the fundamental theorem of finitely generated abelian groups? The one I know is very much of the flavor, "Give me a presentation for the abelian group, and I will decompose it into primitive factors" - maybe your proof does that too?
– Milo Brandt
Aug 20 at 3:12




4




4




@janmarqz I would say that the keywords here are not Tietze transformations, but Smith Normal Form.
– Derek Holt
Aug 20 at 7:08





@janmarqz I would say that the keywords here are not Tietze transformations, but Smith Normal Form.
– Derek Holt
Aug 20 at 7:08











3 Answers
3






active

oldest

votes

















up vote
11
down vote



accepted










You can rewrite your relator such that it has $0$ exponent sum in two of the generators, as the map $xmapsto xyz, ymapsto y, zmapsto z$ is a Nielsen transformation:
$$
beginalign*
langle x, y, zmid x^2=y^2z^2rangle
&conglangle x, y, zmid x^2z^-2y^-2rangle\
&conglangle x, y, zmid (xyz)^2z^-2y^-2rangle
endalign*
$$
Under the abelinisation map we then get the group:
$$
beginalign*
langle x, y, zmid (xyz)^2z^-2y^-2rangle^ab&=langle x, y, zmid x^2rangle^ab\
&cong mathbbZ^2times(mathbbZ/2mathbbZ)
endalign*
$$




This is a specific case of a more general phenomenon, where one can adapt the Euclidean algorithm to rewrite using automorphisms a word $Win F(a, b, ldots)$ such that it has zero exponent sum in all but one of the relators. For example, writing $sigma_x$ for the exponent sum of the relator word in the letter $x$:
$$
beginalign*
&langle a, bmid a^6b^8rangle&&sigma_a=6, sigma_b=8\
&conglangle a, bmid (ab^-1)^6b^8rangle&&textby applying~amapsto ab^-1, bmapsto b\
&=langle a, bmid (ab^-1)^5ab^7rangle&&sigma_a=6, sigma_b=2\
&conglangle a, bmid (a(ba^-3)^-1)^5a(ba^-3)^7rangle&&textby applying~amapsto a, bmapsto ba^-3\
&conglangle a, bmid (a^4b^-1)^5a(ba^-3)^7rangle&&sigma_a=0, sigma_b=2
endalign*
$$
You can think of this as a "non-commutative Smith normal form", but it is more useful in this context than the Smith normal form as it gives you more information than just the abelianisation. For example, it is used in the HNN-extension version of the Magnus hierarchy ($a$ is the stable letter, and the associated subgroups are free by the Freiheitssatz; see J. McCool and P. Schupp, On one relator groups and HNN extensions, Journal of the Australian Mathematical Society, Volume 16, Issue 2, September 1973 , pp. 249-256 doi).






share|cite|improve this answer


















  • 1




    Seems like overkill not to abelianize first and just work in the category of abelian groups.
    – C Monsour
    Aug 20 at 13:35










  • @CMonsour Probably, but this is what I did when I solved the problem :-) [Also, as I said in the post, the general idea of reducing exponent sums to $0$ has applications beyond abelianisations.]
    – user1729
    Aug 20 at 13:39


















up vote
6
down vote













I would think of it as starting with $BbbZ^3=langle x,y,zrangle $ and then quotienting out the cyclic subgroup $langle x^-2y^2z^2rangle$. You can see easily that $x^-1yz$, $y$, and $z$ are an alternate set of generators for $G$, so you get $BbbZ^2times BbbZ/2BbbZ$ generated by $y, z,$ and $x^-1yz$ when you take the quotient.



There is no need to know anything about non-abelian groups, since you can abelianize first and then mod out by the relation. (Abelianization is just modding out by some relations, and it doesn't matter which relations you mod out first--you get to the same place in the end.)






share|cite|improve this answer





























    up vote
    2
    down vote













    If we have
    $$langle x,y,z | x^-2y^2z^2=1rangle^rm ab=langle x,y,z | x^-2y^2z^2=[x,y]=[x,z]=[y,z]=1rangle$$
    with one of the Tietze moves
    $$langle x,y,z,t | t=x^-1yz, t^2=[x,y]=[x,z]=[y,z]=1rangle$$
    With another, now we arrange
    $$langle x,y,z,t | x=yzt^-1, t^2=[x,y]=[x,z]=[y,z]=1rangle$$
    and finally get
    $$langle y,z,t | t^2=[x,y]=[x,z]=[y,z]=1rangle$$
    which clearly is $Bbb Z+Bbb Z+Bbb Z_2$.






    share|cite|improve this answer






















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      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes








      3 Answers
      3






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes








      up vote
      11
      down vote



      accepted










      You can rewrite your relator such that it has $0$ exponent sum in two of the generators, as the map $xmapsto xyz, ymapsto y, zmapsto z$ is a Nielsen transformation:
      $$
      beginalign*
      langle x, y, zmid x^2=y^2z^2rangle
      &conglangle x, y, zmid x^2z^-2y^-2rangle\
      &conglangle x, y, zmid (xyz)^2z^-2y^-2rangle
      endalign*
      $$
      Under the abelinisation map we then get the group:
      $$
      beginalign*
      langle x, y, zmid (xyz)^2z^-2y^-2rangle^ab&=langle x, y, zmid x^2rangle^ab\
      &cong mathbbZ^2times(mathbbZ/2mathbbZ)
      endalign*
      $$




      This is a specific case of a more general phenomenon, where one can adapt the Euclidean algorithm to rewrite using automorphisms a word $Win F(a, b, ldots)$ such that it has zero exponent sum in all but one of the relators. For example, writing $sigma_x$ for the exponent sum of the relator word in the letter $x$:
      $$
      beginalign*
      &langle a, bmid a^6b^8rangle&&sigma_a=6, sigma_b=8\
      &conglangle a, bmid (ab^-1)^6b^8rangle&&textby applying~amapsto ab^-1, bmapsto b\
      &=langle a, bmid (ab^-1)^5ab^7rangle&&sigma_a=6, sigma_b=2\
      &conglangle a, bmid (a(ba^-3)^-1)^5a(ba^-3)^7rangle&&textby applying~amapsto a, bmapsto ba^-3\
      &conglangle a, bmid (a^4b^-1)^5a(ba^-3)^7rangle&&sigma_a=0, sigma_b=2
      endalign*
      $$
      You can think of this as a "non-commutative Smith normal form", but it is more useful in this context than the Smith normal form as it gives you more information than just the abelianisation. For example, it is used in the HNN-extension version of the Magnus hierarchy ($a$ is the stable letter, and the associated subgroups are free by the Freiheitssatz; see J. McCool and P. Schupp, On one relator groups and HNN extensions, Journal of the Australian Mathematical Society, Volume 16, Issue 2, September 1973 , pp. 249-256 doi).






      share|cite|improve this answer


















      • 1




        Seems like overkill not to abelianize first and just work in the category of abelian groups.
        – C Monsour
        Aug 20 at 13:35










      • @CMonsour Probably, but this is what I did when I solved the problem :-) [Also, as I said in the post, the general idea of reducing exponent sums to $0$ has applications beyond abelianisations.]
        – user1729
        Aug 20 at 13:39















      up vote
      11
      down vote



      accepted










      You can rewrite your relator such that it has $0$ exponent sum in two of the generators, as the map $xmapsto xyz, ymapsto y, zmapsto z$ is a Nielsen transformation:
      $$
      beginalign*
      langle x, y, zmid x^2=y^2z^2rangle
      &conglangle x, y, zmid x^2z^-2y^-2rangle\
      &conglangle x, y, zmid (xyz)^2z^-2y^-2rangle
      endalign*
      $$
      Under the abelinisation map we then get the group:
      $$
      beginalign*
      langle x, y, zmid (xyz)^2z^-2y^-2rangle^ab&=langle x, y, zmid x^2rangle^ab\
      &cong mathbbZ^2times(mathbbZ/2mathbbZ)
      endalign*
      $$




      This is a specific case of a more general phenomenon, where one can adapt the Euclidean algorithm to rewrite using automorphisms a word $Win F(a, b, ldots)$ such that it has zero exponent sum in all but one of the relators. For example, writing $sigma_x$ for the exponent sum of the relator word in the letter $x$:
      $$
      beginalign*
      &langle a, bmid a^6b^8rangle&&sigma_a=6, sigma_b=8\
      &conglangle a, bmid (ab^-1)^6b^8rangle&&textby applying~amapsto ab^-1, bmapsto b\
      &=langle a, bmid (ab^-1)^5ab^7rangle&&sigma_a=6, sigma_b=2\
      &conglangle a, bmid (a(ba^-3)^-1)^5a(ba^-3)^7rangle&&textby applying~amapsto a, bmapsto ba^-3\
      &conglangle a, bmid (a^4b^-1)^5a(ba^-3)^7rangle&&sigma_a=0, sigma_b=2
      endalign*
      $$
      You can think of this as a "non-commutative Smith normal form", but it is more useful in this context than the Smith normal form as it gives you more information than just the abelianisation. For example, it is used in the HNN-extension version of the Magnus hierarchy ($a$ is the stable letter, and the associated subgroups are free by the Freiheitssatz; see J. McCool and P. Schupp, On one relator groups and HNN extensions, Journal of the Australian Mathematical Society, Volume 16, Issue 2, September 1973 , pp. 249-256 doi).






      share|cite|improve this answer


















      • 1




        Seems like overkill not to abelianize first and just work in the category of abelian groups.
        – C Monsour
        Aug 20 at 13:35










      • @CMonsour Probably, but this is what I did when I solved the problem :-) [Also, as I said in the post, the general idea of reducing exponent sums to $0$ has applications beyond abelianisations.]
        – user1729
        Aug 20 at 13:39













      up vote
      11
      down vote



      accepted







      up vote
      11
      down vote



      accepted






      You can rewrite your relator such that it has $0$ exponent sum in two of the generators, as the map $xmapsto xyz, ymapsto y, zmapsto z$ is a Nielsen transformation:
      $$
      beginalign*
      langle x, y, zmid x^2=y^2z^2rangle
      &conglangle x, y, zmid x^2z^-2y^-2rangle\
      &conglangle x, y, zmid (xyz)^2z^-2y^-2rangle
      endalign*
      $$
      Under the abelinisation map we then get the group:
      $$
      beginalign*
      langle x, y, zmid (xyz)^2z^-2y^-2rangle^ab&=langle x, y, zmid x^2rangle^ab\
      &cong mathbbZ^2times(mathbbZ/2mathbbZ)
      endalign*
      $$




      This is a specific case of a more general phenomenon, where one can adapt the Euclidean algorithm to rewrite using automorphisms a word $Win F(a, b, ldots)$ such that it has zero exponent sum in all but one of the relators. For example, writing $sigma_x$ for the exponent sum of the relator word in the letter $x$:
      $$
      beginalign*
      &langle a, bmid a^6b^8rangle&&sigma_a=6, sigma_b=8\
      &conglangle a, bmid (ab^-1)^6b^8rangle&&textby applying~amapsto ab^-1, bmapsto b\
      &=langle a, bmid (ab^-1)^5ab^7rangle&&sigma_a=6, sigma_b=2\
      &conglangle a, bmid (a(ba^-3)^-1)^5a(ba^-3)^7rangle&&textby applying~amapsto a, bmapsto ba^-3\
      &conglangle a, bmid (a^4b^-1)^5a(ba^-3)^7rangle&&sigma_a=0, sigma_b=2
      endalign*
      $$
      You can think of this as a "non-commutative Smith normal form", but it is more useful in this context than the Smith normal form as it gives you more information than just the abelianisation. For example, it is used in the HNN-extension version of the Magnus hierarchy ($a$ is the stable letter, and the associated subgroups are free by the Freiheitssatz; see J. McCool and P. Schupp, On one relator groups and HNN extensions, Journal of the Australian Mathematical Society, Volume 16, Issue 2, September 1973 , pp. 249-256 doi).






      share|cite|improve this answer














      You can rewrite your relator such that it has $0$ exponent sum in two of the generators, as the map $xmapsto xyz, ymapsto y, zmapsto z$ is a Nielsen transformation:
      $$
      beginalign*
      langle x, y, zmid x^2=y^2z^2rangle
      &conglangle x, y, zmid x^2z^-2y^-2rangle\
      &conglangle x, y, zmid (xyz)^2z^-2y^-2rangle
      endalign*
      $$
      Under the abelinisation map we then get the group:
      $$
      beginalign*
      langle x, y, zmid (xyz)^2z^-2y^-2rangle^ab&=langle x, y, zmid x^2rangle^ab\
      &cong mathbbZ^2times(mathbbZ/2mathbbZ)
      endalign*
      $$




      This is a specific case of a more general phenomenon, where one can adapt the Euclidean algorithm to rewrite using automorphisms a word $Win F(a, b, ldots)$ such that it has zero exponent sum in all but one of the relators. For example, writing $sigma_x$ for the exponent sum of the relator word in the letter $x$:
      $$
      beginalign*
      &langle a, bmid a^6b^8rangle&&sigma_a=6, sigma_b=8\
      &conglangle a, bmid (ab^-1)^6b^8rangle&&textby applying~amapsto ab^-1, bmapsto b\
      &=langle a, bmid (ab^-1)^5ab^7rangle&&sigma_a=6, sigma_b=2\
      &conglangle a, bmid (a(ba^-3)^-1)^5a(ba^-3)^7rangle&&textby applying~amapsto a, bmapsto ba^-3\
      &conglangle a, bmid (a^4b^-1)^5a(ba^-3)^7rangle&&sigma_a=0, sigma_b=2
      endalign*
      $$
      You can think of this as a "non-commutative Smith normal form", but it is more useful in this context than the Smith normal form as it gives you more information than just the abelianisation. For example, it is used in the HNN-extension version of the Magnus hierarchy ($a$ is the stable letter, and the associated subgroups are free by the Freiheitssatz; see J. McCool and P. Schupp, On one relator groups and HNN extensions, Journal of the Australian Mathematical Society, Volume 16, Issue 2, September 1973 , pp. 249-256 doi).







      share|cite|improve this answer














      share|cite|improve this answer



      share|cite|improve this answer








      edited Aug 21 at 8:35

























      answered Aug 20 at 8:40









      user1729

      16.8k64082




      16.8k64082







      • 1




        Seems like overkill not to abelianize first and just work in the category of abelian groups.
        – C Monsour
        Aug 20 at 13:35










      • @CMonsour Probably, but this is what I did when I solved the problem :-) [Also, as I said in the post, the general idea of reducing exponent sums to $0$ has applications beyond abelianisations.]
        – user1729
        Aug 20 at 13:39













      • 1




        Seems like overkill not to abelianize first and just work in the category of abelian groups.
        – C Monsour
        Aug 20 at 13:35










      • @CMonsour Probably, but this is what I did when I solved the problem :-) [Also, as I said in the post, the general idea of reducing exponent sums to $0$ has applications beyond abelianisations.]
        – user1729
        Aug 20 at 13:39








      1




      1




      Seems like overkill not to abelianize first and just work in the category of abelian groups.
      – C Monsour
      Aug 20 at 13:35




      Seems like overkill not to abelianize first and just work in the category of abelian groups.
      – C Monsour
      Aug 20 at 13:35












      @CMonsour Probably, but this is what I did when I solved the problem :-) [Also, as I said in the post, the general idea of reducing exponent sums to $0$ has applications beyond abelianisations.]
      – user1729
      Aug 20 at 13:39





      @CMonsour Probably, but this is what I did when I solved the problem :-) [Also, as I said in the post, the general idea of reducing exponent sums to $0$ has applications beyond abelianisations.]
      – user1729
      Aug 20 at 13:39











      up vote
      6
      down vote













      I would think of it as starting with $BbbZ^3=langle x,y,zrangle $ and then quotienting out the cyclic subgroup $langle x^-2y^2z^2rangle$. You can see easily that $x^-1yz$, $y$, and $z$ are an alternate set of generators for $G$, so you get $BbbZ^2times BbbZ/2BbbZ$ generated by $y, z,$ and $x^-1yz$ when you take the quotient.



      There is no need to know anything about non-abelian groups, since you can abelianize first and then mod out by the relation. (Abelianization is just modding out by some relations, and it doesn't matter which relations you mod out first--you get to the same place in the end.)






      share|cite|improve this answer


























        up vote
        6
        down vote













        I would think of it as starting with $BbbZ^3=langle x,y,zrangle $ and then quotienting out the cyclic subgroup $langle x^-2y^2z^2rangle$. You can see easily that $x^-1yz$, $y$, and $z$ are an alternate set of generators for $G$, so you get $BbbZ^2times BbbZ/2BbbZ$ generated by $y, z,$ and $x^-1yz$ when you take the quotient.



        There is no need to know anything about non-abelian groups, since you can abelianize first and then mod out by the relation. (Abelianization is just modding out by some relations, and it doesn't matter which relations you mod out first--you get to the same place in the end.)






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          up vote
          6
          down vote










          up vote
          6
          down vote









          I would think of it as starting with $BbbZ^3=langle x,y,zrangle $ and then quotienting out the cyclic subgroup $langle x^-2y^2z^2rangle$. You can see easily that $x^-1yz$, $y$, and $z$ are an alternate set of generators for $G$, so you get $BbbZ^2times BbbZ/2BbbZ$ generated by $y, z,$ and $x^-1yz$ when you take the quotient.



          There is no need to know anything about non-abelian groups, since you can abelianize first and then mod out by the relation. (Abelianization is just modding out by some relations, and it doesn't matter which relations you mod out first--you get to the same place in the end.)






          share|cite|improve this answer














          I would think of it as starting with $BbbZ^3=langle x,y,zrangle $ and then quotienting out the cyclic subgroup $langle x^-2y^2z^2rangle$. You can see easily that $x^-1yz$, $y$, and $z$ are an alternate set of generators for $G$, so you get $BbbZ^2times BbbZ/2BbbZ$ generated by $y, z,$ and $x^-1yz$ when you take the quotient.



          There is no need to know anything about non-abelian groups, since you can abelianize first and then mod out by the relation. (Abelianization is just modding out by some relations, and it doesn't matter which relations you mod out first--you get to the same place in the end.)







          share|cite|improve this answer














          share|cite|improve this answer



          share|cite|improve this answer








          edited Aug 20 at 15:41

























          answered Aug 20 at 2:54









          C Monsour

          4,651221




          4,651221




















              up vote
              2
              down vote













              If we have
              $$langle x,y,z | x^-2y^2z^2=1rangle^rm ab=langle x,y,z | x^-2y^2z^2=[x,y]=[x,z]=[y,z]=1rangle$$
              with one of the Tietze moves
              $$langle x,y,z,t | t=x^-1yz, t^2=[x,y]=[x,z]=[y,z]=1rangle$$
              With another, now we arrange
              $$langle x,y,z,t | x=yzt^-1, t^2=[x,y]=[x,z]=[y,z]=1rangle$$
              and finally get
              $$langle y,z,t | t^2=[x,y]=[x,z]=[y,z]=1rangle$$
              which clearly is $Bbb Z+Bbb Z+Bbb Z_2$.






              share|cite|improve this answer


























                up vote
                2
                down vote













                If we have
                $$langle x,y,z | x^-2y^2z^2=1rangle^rm ab=langle x,y,z | x^-2y^2z^2=[x,y]=[x,z]=[y,z]=1rangle$$
                with one of the Tietze moves
                $$langle x,y,z,t | t=x^-1yz, t^2=[x,y]=[x,z]=[y,z]=1rangle$$
                With another, now we arrange
                $$langle x,y,z,t | x=yzt^-1, t^2=[x,y]=[x,z]=[y,z]=1rangle$$
                and finally get
                $$langle y,z,t | t^2=[x,y]=[x,z]=[y,z]=1rangle$$
                which clearly is $Bbb Z+Bbb Z+Bbb Z_2$.






                share|cite|improve this answer
























                  up vote
                  2
                  down vote










                  up vote
                  2
                  down vote









                  If we have
                  $$langle x,y,z | x^-2y^2z^2=1rangle^rm ab=langle x,y,z | x^-2y^2z^2=[x,y]=[x,z]=[y,z]=1rangle$$
                  with one of the Tietze moves
                  $$langle x,y,z,t | t=x^-1yz, t^2=[x,y]=[x,z]=[y,z]=1rangle$$
                  With another, now we arrange
                  $$langle x,y,z,t | x=yzt^-1, t^2=[x,y]=[x,z]=[y,z]=1rangle$$
                  and finally get
                  $$langle y,z,t | t^2=[x,y]=[x,z]=[y,z]=1rangle$$
                  which clearly is $Bbb Z+Bbb Z+Bbb Z_2$.






                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  If we have
                  $$langle x,y,z | x^-2y^2z^2=1rangle^rm ab=langle x,y,z | x^-2y^2z^2=[x,y]=[x,z]=[y,z]=1rangle$$
                  with one of the Tietze moves
                  $$langle x,y,z,t | t=x^-1yz, t^2=[x,y]=[x,z]=[y,z]=1rangle$$
                  With another, now we arrange
                  $$langle x,y,z,t | x=yzt^-1, t^2=[x,y]=[x,z]=[y,z]=1rangle$$
                  and finally get
                  $$langle y,z,t | t^2=[x,y]=[x,z]=[y,z]=1rangle$$
                  which clearly is $Bbb Z+Bbb Z+Bbb Z_2$.







                  share|cite|improve this answer














                  share|cite|improve this answer



                  share|cite|improve this answer








                  edited Aug 24 at 18:37

























                  answered Aug 24 at 18:29









                  janmarqz

                  6,06441629




                  6,06441629






















                       

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