Go to a Schengen country after 90 days in bilateral agreement country
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So far, all the information I am finding is that I can travel to a country with bilateral agreement and stay for 90 days but I should do it at the end of my trip. Here is my circumstance:
I wish to travel 60 days in a Schengen country (Spain), then spend 60 days in a bilateral Schengen agreement country (Poland). Then, I wish to return to Spain for the remaining 30 days I did not use in the beginning, and fly back to the USA from there.
If I produce receipts that I was in the bilateral agreement country for 60 days, will Spain let me back in?
Another way of asking this is do the 60 days in Poland count against my total of 90 days I'm allowed in Spain?
schengen
edited Apr 13 at 2:03
dda
14.3k32851
asked Apr 12 at 18:58
ampoe2
191
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
So far, all the information I am finding is that I can travel to a country with bilateral agreement and stay for 90 days but I should do it at the end of my trip. Here is my circumstance:
I wish to travel 60 days in a Schengen country (Spain), then spend 60 days in a bilateral Schengen agreement country (Poland). Then, I wish to return to Spain for the remaining 30 days I did not use in the beginning, and fly back to the USA from there.
If I produce receipts that I was in the bilateral agreement country for 60 days, will Spain let me back in?
Another way of asking this is do the 60 days in Poland count against my total of 90 days I'm allowed in Spain?
schengen
edited Apr 13 at 2:03
dda
14.3k32851
asked Apr 12 at 18:58
ampoe2
191
1
Why the downvote? The question is perfectly clear to me, not to mention a good question, although it might be improved by adding some links to provide context for those who are not familiar with the "bilateral agreements" under discussion.
– phoog
Apr 12 at 19:32
1
The general consensus seems to be that the time in Poland does count for the rest of the area, so you would have to leave from Poland directly to a non-Schengen country or another bilateral agreement country such as Denmark. I could not however find anything saying this officially, which is why I am not posting an answer. The conclusion simply follows from the fact that the Schengen legislation says nothing about these bilateral agreements. See for example travel.stackexchange.com/q/39649/19400.
– phoog
Apr 12 at 19:41
add a comment |Â
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
up vote
2
down vote
favorite
So far, all the information I am finding is that I can travel to a country with bilateral agreement and stay for 90 days but I should do it at the end of my trip. Here is my circumstance:
I wish to travel 60 days in a Schengen country (Spain), then spend 60 days in a bilateral Schengen agreement country (Poland). Then, I wish to return to Spain for the remaining 30 days I did not use in the beginning, and fly back to the USA from there.
If I produce receipts that I was in the bilateral agreement country for 60 days, will Spain let me back in?
Another way of asking this is do the 60 days in Poland count against my total of 90 days I'm allowed in Spain?
schengen
edited Apr 13 at 2:03
dda
14.3k32851
asked Apr 12 at 18:58
ampoe2
191
So far, all the information I am finding is that I can travel to a country with bilateral agreement and stay for 90 days but I should do it at the end of my trip. Here is my circumstance:
I wish to travel 60 days in a Schengen country (Spain), then spend 60 days in a bilateral Schengen agreement country (Poland). Then, I wish to return to Spain for the remaining 30 days I did not use in the beginning, and fly back to the USA from there.
If I produce receipts that I was in the bilateral agreement country for 60 days, will Spain let me back in?
Another way of asking this is do the 60 days in Poland count against my total of 90 days I'm allowed in Spain?
schengen
edited Apr 13 at 2:03
dda
14.3k32851
asked Apr 12 at 18:58
ampoe2
191
edited Apr 13 at 2:03
dda
14.3k32851
edited Apr 13 at 2:03
dda
14.3k32851
edited Apr 13 at 2:03
dda
14.3k32851
14.3k32851
asked Apr 12 at 18:58
ampoe2
191
asked Apr 12 at 18:58
ampoe2
191
asked Apr 12 at 18:58
ampoe2
191
191
1
Why the downvote? The question is perfectly clear to me, not to mention a good question, although it might be improved by adding some links to provide context for those who are not familiar with the "bilateral agreements" under discussion.
– phoog
Apr 12 at 19:32
1
The general consensus seems to be that the time in Poland does count for the rest of the area, so you would have to leave from Poland directly to a non-Schengen country or another bilateral agreement country such as Denmark. I could not however find anything saying this officially, which is why I am not posting an answer. The conclusion simply follows from the fact that the Schengen legislation says nothing about these bilateral agreements. See for example travel.stackexchange.com/q/39649/19400.
– phoog
Apr 12 at 19:41
add a comment |Â
1
Why the downvote? The question is perfectly clear to me, not to mention a good question, although it might be improved by adding some links to provide context for those who are not familiar with the "bilateral agreements" under discussion.
– phoog
Apr 12 at 19:32
1
The general consensus seems to be that the time in Poland does count for the rest of the area, so you would have to leave from Poland directly to a non-Schengen country or another bilateral agreement country such as Denmark. I could not however find anything saying this officially, which is why I am not posting an answer. The conclusion simply follows from the fact that the Schengen legislation says nothing about these bilateral agreements. See for example travel.stackexchange.com/q/39649/19400.
– phoog
Apr 12 at 19:41
1
1
Why the downvote? The question is perfectly clear to me, not to mention a good question, although it might be improved by adding some links to provide context for those who are not familiar with the "bilateral agreements" under discussion.
– phoog
Apr 12 at 19:32
Why the downvote? The question is perfectly clear to me, not to mention a good question, although it might be improved by adding some links to provide context for those who are not familiar with the "bilateral agreements" under discussion.
– phoog
Apr 12 at 19:32
1
1
The general consensus seems to be that the time in Poland does count for the rest of the area, so you would have to leave from Poland directly to a non-Schengen country or another bilateral agreement country such as Denmark. I could not however find anything saying this officially, which is why I am not posting an answer. The conclusion simply follows from the fact that the Schengen legislation says nothing about these bilateral agreements. See for example travel.stackexchange.com/q/39649/19400.
– phoog
Apr 12 at 19:41
The general consensus seems to be that the time in Poland does count for the rest of the area, so you would have to leave from Poland directly to a non-Schengen country or another bilateral agreement country such as Denmark. I could not however find anything saying this officially, which is why I am not posting an answer. The conclusion simply follows from the fact that the Schengen legislation says nothing about these bilateral agreements. See for example travel.stackexchange.com/q/39649/19400.
– phoog
Apr 12 at 19:41
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
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up vote
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Another way of asking this is do the 60 days in Poland count against
my total of 90 days I'm allowed in Spain?
It seems like yes, it does, since you were physically present in the "Schengen Area" (i.e. territory of Member States). Your admittance to Spain thus is based on Article 6 of Schengen Borders Code, which says:
- For intended stays on the territory of the Member States of a duration of no more than 90 days in any 180-day period, which entails
considering the 180-day period preceding each day of stay
This provision has only two exclusions: a) for long term EU visa holders/residents entering a Schengen country while in transit to the country of their residence, and c) on humanitarian grounds, on grounds of national interest or because of international obligations.
There seem to be no other provision in the Borders Code under which Spain could legally admit you. And of course bilateral agreement between the USA and Poland has no effect on Spain, being not a party to those agreements.
answered Apr 16 at 4:12
George Y.
17.8k12673
add a comment |Â
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
1
down vote
Another way of asking this is do the 60 days in Poland count against
my total of 90 days I'm allowed in Spain?
It seems like yes, it does, since you were physically present in the "Schengen Area" (i.e. territory of Member States). Your admittance to Spain thus is based on Article 6 of Schengen Borders Code, which says:
- For intended stays on the territory of the Member States of a duration of no more than 90 days in any 180-day period, which entails
considering the 180-day period preceding each day of stay
This provision has only two exclusions: a) for long term EU visa holders/residents entering a Schengen country while in transit to the country of their residence, and c) on humanitarian grounds, on grounds of national interest or because of international obligations.
There seem to be no other provision in the Borders Code under which Spain could legally admit you. And of course bilateral agreement between the USA and Poland has no effect on Spain, being not a party to those agreements.
answered Apr 16 at 4:12
George Y.
17.8k12673
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
Another way of asking this is do the 60 days in Poland count against
my total of 90 days I'm allowed in Spain?
It seems like yes, it does, since you were physically present in the "Schengen Area" (i.e. territory of Member States). Your admittance to Spain thus is based on Article 6 of Schengen Borders Code, which says:
- For intended stays on the territory of the Member States of a duration of no more than 90 days in any 180-day period, which entails
considering the 180-day period preceding each day of stay
This provision has only two exclusions: a) for long term EU visa holders/residents entering a Schengen country while in transit to the country of their residence, and c) on humanitarian grounds, on grounds of national interest or because of international obligations.
There seem to be no other provision in the Borders Code under which Spain could legally admit you. And of course bilateral agreement between the USA and Poland has no effect on Spain, being not a party to those agreements.
answered Apr 16 at 4:12
George Y.
17.8k12673
add a comment |Â
up vote
1
down vote
up vote
1
down vote
Another way of asking this is do the 60 days in Poland count against
my total of 90 days I'm allowed in Spain?
It seems like yes, it does, since you were physically present in the "Schengen Area" (i.e. territory of Member States). Your admittance to Spain thus is based on Article 6 of Schengen Borders Code, which says:
- For intended stays on the territory of the Member States of a duration of no more than 90 days in any 180-day period, which entails
considering the 180-day period preceding each day of stay
This provision has only two exclusions: a) for long term EU visa holders/residents entering a Schengen country while in transit to the country of their residence, and c) on humanitarian grounds, on grounds of national interest or because of international obligations.
There seem to be no other provision in the Borders Code under which Spain could legally admit you. And of course bilateral agreement between the USA and Poland has no effect on Spain, being not a party to those agreements.
answered Apr 16 at 4:12
George Y.
17.8k12673
Another way of asking this is do the 60 days in Poland count against
my total of 90 days I'm allowed in Spain?
It seems like yes, it does, since you were physically present in the "Schengen Area" (i.e. territory of Member States). Your admittance to Spain thus is based on Article 6 of Schengen Borders Code, which says:
- For intended stays on the territory of the Member States of a duration of no more than 90 days in any 180-day period, which entails
considering the 180-day period preceding each day of stay
This provision has only two exclusions: a) for long term EU visa holders/residents entering a Schengen country while in transit to the country of their residence, and c) on humanitarian grounds, on grounds of national interest or because of international obligations.
There seem to be no other provision in the Borders Code under which Spain could legally admit you. And of course bilateral agreement between the USA and Poland has no effect on Spain, being not a party to those agreements.
answered Apr 16 at 4:12
George Y.
17.8k12673
answered Apr 16 at 4:12
George Y.
17.8k12673
answered Apr 16 at 4:12
George Y.
17.8k12673
answered Apr 16 at 4:12
George Y.
17.8k12673
17.8k12673
add a comment |Â
add a comment |Â
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1
Why the downvote? The question is perfectly clear to me, not to mention a good question, although it might be improved by adding some links to provide context for those who are not familiar with the "bilateral agreements" under discussion.
– phoog
Apr 12 at 19:32
1
The general consensus seems to be that the time in Poland does count for the rest of the area, so you would have to leave from Poland directly to a non-Schengen country or another bilateral agreement country such as Denmark. I could not however find anything saying this officially, which is why I am not posting an answer. The conclusion simply follows from the fact that the Schengen legislation says nothing about these bilateral agreements. See for example travel.stackexchange.com/q/39649/19400.
– phoog
Apr 12 at 19:41