Why is a nonstop flight sometimes more expensive than multiple connections?










19















Usually I find a flight I like that uses one or more connections with the same or different companies. In these cases, if the distance between the first and the second connection is not too large, I prefer to go by bus or train and then take the flight. The problem is that sometimes it is more expensive to take the flight in the second airport than to take the flight from the first one. I mean, I'm wondering why sometimes it is more expensive to take only a flight than to take the same flight and another one.



A practical example (and real, you can check with SkyScanner). Imagine I am in Madrid (Spain) and would like to go to Rio de Janeiro (Brazil) on April 1st. The cheapest flight I have found is this:




TAM airlines: MAD -> GRU -> GIG : 507 €




Fantastic! GRU is one of São Paulo's airports. That's perfect for me! I'll go on to Rio traveling overland. But then, I look for this flight (MAD -> GRU, non-stop):




TAM airlines: MAD -> GRU : 597 €




It's the same flight, 90 € more expensive! I've found this kind of behavior a lot of times and I'm intrigued to know why it happens.










share|improve this question



















  • 6





    Supply and demand baby!

    – hippietrail
    Feb 8 '12 at 9:17






  • 1





    @hippietrail, your explanation does not make any economic sense. If it was supply and demand and anyone could disembark at GRU on the 1-stop flight, everyone would do.

    – Matt
    Jun 27 '15 at 10:33






  • 1





    I once took a train from Munich to Paris, to take a CDG-MUC-GRU flight that still remained cheaper after the train ticket.

    – Simon Richter
    Jan 1 '17 at 13:50











  • I asked a question about a different situation (double-way much cheaper than one way) but the mechanism seems to be the same: they set the highest price they think will maximize profit after accounting for sales lost due to the higher price. This is a business where it's considered normal that there is no link between production cost and sale price - but only in one direction, that is, until the production costs increase, at which point the link reappears and increased prices get blamed on increased costs, f.ex. fuel.

    – SantiBailors
    Jan 21 '17 at 10:02
















19















Usually I find a flight I like that uses one or more connections with the same or different companies. In these cases, if the distance between the first and the second connection is not too large, I prefer to go by bus or train and then take the flight. The problem is that sometimes it is more expensive to take the flight in the second airport than to take the flight from the first one. I mean, I'm wondering why sometimes it is more expensive to take only a flight than to take the same flight and another one.



A practical example (and real, you can check with SkyScanner). Imagine I am in Madrid (Spain) and would like to go to Rio de Janeiro (Brazil) on April 1st. The cheapest flight I have found is this:




TAM airlines: MAD -> GRU -> GIG : 507 €




Fantastic! GRU is one of São Paulo's airports. That's perfect for me! I'll go on to Rio traveling overland. But then, I look for this flight (MAD -> GRU, non-stop):




TAM airlines: MAD -> GRU : 597 €




It's the same flight, 90 € more expensive! I've found this kind of behavior a lot of times and I'm intrigued to know why it happens.










share|improve this question



















  • 6





    Supply and demand baby!

    – hippietrail
    Feb 8 '12 at 9:17






  • 1





    @hippietrail, your explanation does not make any economic sense. If it was supply and demand and anyone could disembark at GRU on the 1-stop flight, everyone would do.

    – Matt
    Jun 27 '15 at 10:33






  • 1





    I once took a train from Munich to Paris, to take a CDG-MUC-GRU flight that still remained cheaper after the train ticket.

    – Simon Richter
    Jan 1 '17 at 13:50











  • I asked a question about a different situation (double-way much cheaper than one way) but the mechanism seems to be the same: they set the highest price they think will maximize profit after accounting for sales lost due to the higher price. This is a business where it's considered normal that there is no link between production cost and sale price - but only in one direction, that is, until the production costs increase, at which point the link reappears and increased prices get blamed on increased costs, f.ex. fuel.

    – SantiBailors
    Jan 21 '17 at 10:02














19












19








19


1






Usually I find a flight I like that uses one or more connections with the same or different companies. In these cases, if the distance between the first and the second connection is not too large, I prefer to go by bus or train and then take the flight. The problem is that sometimes it is more expensive to take the flight in the second airport than to take the flight from the first one. I mean, I'm wondering why sometimes it is more expensive to take only a flight than to take the same flight and another one.



A practical example (and real, you can check with SkyScanner). Imagine I am in Madrid (Spain) and would like to go to Rio de Janeiro (Brazil) on April 1st. The cheapest flight I have found is this:




TAM airlines: MAD -> GRU -> GIG : 507 €




Fantastic! GRU is one of São Paulo's airports. That's perfect for me! I'll go on to Rio traveling overland. But then, I look for this flight (MAD -> GRU, non-stop):




TAM airlines: MAD -> GRU : 597 €




It's the same flight, 90 € more expensive! I've found this kind of behavior a lot of times and I'm intrigued to know why it happens.










share|improve this question
















Usually I find a flight I like that uses one or more connections with the same or different companies. In these cases, if the distance between the first and the second connection is not too large, I prefer to go by bus or train and then take the flight. The problem is that sometimes it is more expensive to take the flight in the second airport than to take the flight from the first one. I mean, I'm wondering why sometimes it is more expensive to take only a flight than to take the same flight and another one.



A practical example (and real, you can check with SkyScanner). Imagine I am in Madrid (Spain) and would like to go to Rio de Janeiro (Brazil) on April 1st. The cheapest flight I have found is this:




TAM airlines: MAD -> GRU -> GIG : 507 €




Fantastic! GRU is one of São Paulo's airports. That's perfect for me! I'll go on to Rio traveling overland. But then, I look for this flight (MAD -> GRU, non-stop):




TAM airlines: MAD -> GRU : 597 €




It's the same flight, 90 € more expensive! I've found this kind of behavior a lot of times and I'm intrigued to know why it happens.







air-travel






share|improve this question















share|improve this question













share|improve this question




share|improve this question








edited Aug 3 '14 at 2:11









choster

33.9k495150




33.9k495150










asked Feb 8 '12 at 0:04









IvanIvan

9,5121165145




9,5121165145







  • 6





    Supply and demand baby!

    – hippietrail
    Feb 8 '12 at 9:17






  • 1





    @hippietrail, your explanation does not make any economic sense. If it was supply and demand and anyone could disembark at GRU on the 1-stop flight, everyone would do.

    – Matt
    Jun 27 '15 at 10:33






  • 1





    I once took a train from Munich to Paris, to take a CDG-MUC-GRU flight that still remained cheaper after the train ticket.

    – Simon Richter
    Jan 1 '17 at 13:50











  • I asked a question about a different situation (double-way much cheaper than one way) but the mechanism seems to be the same: they set the highest price they think will maximize profit after accounting for sales lost due to the higher price. This is a business where it's considered normal that there is no link between production cost and sale price - but only in one direction, that is, until the production costs increase, at which point the link reappears and increased prices get blamed on increased costs, f.ex. fuel.

    – SantiBailors
    Jan 21 '17 at 10:02













  • 6





    Supply and demand baby!

    – hippietrail
    Feb 8 '12 at 9:17






  • 1





    @hippietrail, your explanation does not make any economic sense. If it was supply and demand and anyone could disembark at GRU on the 1-stop flight, everyone would do.

    – Matt
    Jun 27 '15 at 10:33






  • 1





    I once took a train from Munich to Paris, to take a CDG-MUC-GRU flight that still remained cheaper after the train ticket.

    – Simon Richter
    Jan 1 '17 at 13:50











  • I asked a question about a different situation (double-way much cheaper than one way) but the mechanism seems to be the same: they set the highest price they think will maximize profit after accounting for sales lost due to the higher price. This is a business where it's considered normal that there is no link between production cost and sale price - but only in one direction, that is, until the production costs increase, at which point the link reappears and increased prices get blamed on increased costs, f.ex. fuel.

    – SantiBailors
    Jan 21 '17 at 10:02








6




6





Supply and demand baby!

– hippietrail
Feb 8 '12 at 9:17





Supply and demand baby!

– hippietrail
Feb 8 '12 at 9:17




1




1





@hippietrail, your explanation does not make any economic sense. If it was supply and demand and anyone could disembark at GRU on the 1-stop flight, everyone would do.

– Matt
Jun 27 '15 at 10:33





@hippietrail, your explanation does not make any economic sense. If it was supply and demand and anyone could disembark at GRU on the 1-stop flight, everyone would do.

– Matt
Jun 27 '15 at 10:33




1




1





I once took a train from Munich to Paris, to take a CDG-MUC-GRU flight that still remained cheaper after the train ticket.

– Simon Richter
Jan 1 '17 at 13:50





I once took a train from Munich to Paris, to take a CDG-MUC-GRU flight that still remained cheaper after the train ticket.

– Simon Richter
Jan 1 '17 at 13:50













I asked a question about a different situation (double-way much cheaper than one way) but the mechanism seems to be the same: they set the highest price they think will maximize profit after accounting for sales lost due to the higher price. This is a business where it's considered normal that there is no link between production cost and sale price - but only in one direction, that is, until the production costs increase, at which point the link reappears and increased prices get blamed on increased costs, f.ex. fuel.

– SantiBailors
Jan 21 '17 at 10:02






I asked a question about a different situation (double-way much cheaper than one way) but the mechanism seems to be the same: they set the highest price they think will maximize profit after accounting for sales lost due to the higher price. This is a business where it's considered normal that there is no link between production cost and sale price - but only in one direction, that is, until the production costs increase, at which point the link reappears and increased prices get blamed on increased costs, f.ex. fuel.

– SantiBailors
Jan 21 '17 at 10:02











4 Answers
4






active

oldest

votes


















15














I think the answer has to do with competition.



If you want to fly from Madrid to Rio de Janeiro with one stop, you have lots of options. You can fly TAM (via Sao Paulo), TAP Portugal (via Lisbon), American (via New York or Miami), KLM (via Amsterdam), Air France (via Paris), etc, etc. (I found these with Kayak.) There is a lot of competition and this will tend to drive fares down.



However, if you want to fly from Madrid to Sao Paulo nonstop, your only choices are TAM, Iberia, and (somewhat surprisingly) Air China (though only twice a week). There is less competition, so fares may tend to be higher, and this may exceed the effect of the cost of the extra flight GRU-GIG.



As a more exaggerated example, from my home airport of Ithaca (ITH), I've often seen ITH-EWR-SFO (a total of 4400 km) priced lower than ITH-EWR (which is only 275 km). There are three different airlines providing one-stop service ITH-xxx-SFO, but only one that flies ITH-EWR nonstop.



This effect is why hidden city ticketing can sometimes be advantageous, and why airline policies usually forbid it.






share|improve this answer
































    5














    Not just competition, but also supply and demand. Many people prefer direct connections for their convenience, and are willing to pay more for them. Also, the separate legs of the indirect connection may well be less busy routes, requiring the airline to lower prices on those legs in order to entice passengers who'd otherwise either not travel or take other modes of transport (e.g. airfare between Amsterdam and Paris fell sharply when the high speed rail link was started).

    You have to weigh the cost difference against the time loss and inconvenience (plus the higher risk of mislaid or stolen luggage).






    share|improve this answer


















    • 1





      you did not seem to understand the question. MAD-> GRU even on the 1-stop flight poses a DIRECT connection.

      – Matt
      Jun 27 '15 at 10:35


















    3














    It could be the time of day. Often red-eye flights are cheaper, or business-hour flights are more expensive. The MAD -> GRU one could be a really convenient and popular flight, and as such they can charge more for it, while the MAD-> GRU -> GIG one may be leaving at 4am and arriving at an awful time as well, but it's convenient for them to relocate planes then or something, so they offer a lower price to fill the plane.



    In addition, landing charges may vary at different times of the day, to get a spot in the queue or at the terminal during peak times will cost more.



    Airports charge the airlines quite a bit for premium slots :)






    share|improve this answer


















    • 2





      this argument does not work for identical flights. Please see the following; travel.stackexchange.com/questions/50170/…. The 1st leg of the 1-stop flight is the identically same flight as the direct flight

      – Matt
      Jun 27 '15 at 10:36


















    1














    The most comprehensive and direct answer is “because the airline figured they could sell one of this seats at a higher price”. Time of day, convenience, competition, costs all figure in what's acceptable to the passengers and whether the airline can stay in business but none of this directly dictates price.






    share|improve this answer






















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      4 Answers
      4






      active

      oldest

      votes








      4 Answers
      4






      active

      oldest

      votes









      active

      oldest

      votes






      active

      oldest

      votes









      15














      I think the answer has to do with competition.



      If you want to fly from Madrid to Rio de Janeiro with one stop, you have lots of options. You can fly TAM (via Sao Paulo), TAP Portugal (via Lisbon), American (via New York or Miami), KLM (via Amsterdam), Air France (via Paris), etc, etc. (I found these with Kayak.) There is a lot of competition and this will tend to drive fares down.



      However, if you want to fly from Madrid to Sao Paulo nonstop, your only choices are TAM, Iberia, and (somewhat surprisingly) Air China (though only twice a week). There is less competition, so fares may tend to be higher, and this may exceed the effect of the cost of the extra flight GRU-GIG.



      As a more exaggerated example, from my home airport of Ithaca (ITH), I've often seen ITH-EWR-SFO (a total of 4400 km) priced lower than ITH-EWR (which is only 275 km). There are three different airlines providing one-stop service ITH-xxx-SFO, but only one that flies ITH-EWR nonstop.



      This effect is why hidden city ticketing can sometimes be advantageous, and why airline policies usually forbid it.






      share|improve this answer





























        15














        I think the answer has to do with competition.



        If you want to fly from Madrid to Rio de Janeiro with one stop, you have lots of options. You can fly TAM (via Sao Paulo), TAP Portugal (via Lisbon), American (via New York or Miami), KLM (via Amsterdam), Air France (via Paris), etc, etc. (I found these with Kayak.) There is a lot of competition and this will tend to drive fares down.



        However, if you want to fly from Madrid to Sao Paulo nonstop, your only choices are TAM, Iberia, and (somewhat surprisingly) Air China (though only twice a week). There is less competition, so fares may tend to be higher, and this may exceed the effect of the cost of the extra flight GRU-GIG.



        As a more exaggerated example, from my home airport of Ithaca (ITH), I've often seen ITH-EWR-SFO (a total of 4400 km) priced lower than ITH-EWR (which is only 275 km). There are three different airlines providing one-stop service ITH-xxx-SFO, but only one that flies ITH-EWR nonstop.



        This effect is why hidden city ticketing can sometimes be advantageous, and why airline policies usually forbid it.






        share|improve this answer



























          15












          15








          15







          I think the answer has to do with competition.



          If you want to fly from Madrid to Rio de Janeiro with one stop, you have lots of options. You can fly TAM (via Sao Paulo), TAP Portugal (via Lisbon), American (via New York or Miami), KLM (via Amsterdam), Air France (via Paris), etc, etc. (I found these with Kayak.) There is a lot of competition and this will tend to drive fares down.



          However, if you want to fly from Madrid to Sao Paulo nonstop, your only choices are TAM, Iberia, and (somewhat surprisingly) Air China (though only twice a week). There is less competition, so fares may tend to be higher, and this may exceed the effect of the cost of the extra flight GRU-GIG.



          As a more exaggerated example, from my home airport of Ithaca (ITH), I've often seen ITH-EWR-SFO (a total of 4400 km) priced lower than ITH-EWR (which is only 275 km). There are three different airlines providing one-stop service ITH-xxx-SFO, but only one that flies ITH-EWR nonstop.



          This effect is why hidden city ticketing can sometimes be advantageous, and why airline policies usually forbid it.






          share|improve this answer















          I think the answer has to do with competition.



          If you want to fly from Madrid to Rio de Janeiro with one stop, you have lots of options. You can fly TAM (via Sao Paulo), TAP Portugal (via Lisbon), American (via New York or Miami), KLM (via Amsterdam), Air France (via Paris), etc, etc. (I found these with Kayak.) There is a lot of competition and this will tend to drive fares down.



          However, if you want to fly from Madrid to Sao Paulo nonstop, your only choices are TAM, Iberia, and (somewhat surprisingly) Air China (though only twice a week). There is less competition, so fares may tend to be higher, and this may exceed the effect of the cost of the extra flight GRU-GIG.



          As a more exaggerated example, from my home airport of Ithaca (ITH), I've often seen ITH-EWR-SFO (a total of 4400 km) priced lower than ITH-EWR (which is only 275 km). There are three different airlines providing one-stop service ITH-xxx-SFO, but only one that flies ITH-EWR nonstop.



          This effect is why hidden city ticketing can sometimes be advantageous, and why airline policies usually forbid it.







          share|improve this answer














          share|improve this answer



          share|improve this answer








          edited Feb 8 '12 at 1:01

























          answered Feb 8 '12 at 0:55









          Nate EldredgeNate Eldredge

          23.1k883107




          23.1k883107























              5














              Not just competition, but also supply and demand. Many people prefer direct connections for their convenience, and are willing to pay more for them. Also, the separate legs of the indirect connection may well be less busy routes, requiring the airline to lower prices on those legs in order to entice passengers who'd otherwise either not travel or take other modes of transport (e.g. airfare between Amsterdam and Paris fell sharply when the high speed rail link was started).

              You have to weigh the cost difference against the time loss and inconvenience (plus the higher risk of mislaid or stolen luggage).






              share|improve this answer


















              • 1





                you did not seem to understand the question. MAD-> GRU even on the 1-stop flight poses a DIRECT connection.

                – Matt
                Jun 27 '15 at 10:35















              5














              Not just competition, but also supply and demand. Many people prefer direct connections for their convenience, and are willing to pay more for them. Also, the separate legs of the indirect connection may well be less busy routes, requiring the airline to lower prices on those legs in order to entice passengers who'd otherwise either not travel or take other modes of transport (e.g. airfare between Amsterdam and Paris fell sharply when the high speed rail link was started).

              You have to weigh the cost difference against the time loss and inconvenience (plus the higher risk of mislaid or stolen luggage).






              share|improve this answer


















              • 1





                you did not seem to understand the question. MAD-> GRU even on the 1-stop flight poses a DIRECT connection.

                – Matt
                Jun 27 '15 at 10:35













              5












              5








              5







              Not just competition, but also supply and demand. Many people prefer direct connections for their convenience, and are willing to pay more for them. Also, the separate legs of the indirect connection may well be less busy routes, requiring the airline to lower prices on those legs in order to entice passengers who'd otherwise either not travel or take other modes of transport (e.g. airfare between Amsterdam and Paris fell sharply when the high speed rail link was started).

              You have to weigh the cost difference against the time loss and inconvenience (plus the higher risk of mislaid or stolen luggage).






              share|improve this answer













              Not just competition, but also supply and demand. Many people prefer direct connections for their convenience, and are willing to pay more for them. Also, the separate legs of the indirect connection may well be less busy routes, requiring the airline to lower prices on those legs in order to entice passengers who'd otherwise either not travel or take other modes of transport (e.g. airfare between Amsterdam and Paris fell sharply when the high speed rail link was started).

              You have to weigh the cost difference against the time loss and inconvenience (plus the higher risk of mislaid or stolen luggage).







              share|improve this answer












              share|improve this answer



              share|improve this answer










              answered Feb 8 '12 at 6:42









              jwentingjwenting

              6,96611625




              6,96611625







              • 1





                you did not seem to understand the question. MAD-> GRU even on the 1-stop flight poses a DIRECT connection.

                – Matt
                Jun 27 '15 at 10:35












              • 1





                you did not seem to understand the question. MAD-> GRU even on the 1-stop flight poses a DIRECT connection.

                – Matt
                Jun 27 '15 at 10:35







              1




              1





              you did not seem to understand the question. MAD-> GRU even on the 1-stop flight poses a DIRECT connection.

              – Matt
              Jun 27 '15 at 10:35





              you did not seem to understand the question. MAD-> GRU even on the 1-stop flight poses a DIRECT connection.

              – Matt
              Jun 27 '15 at 10:35











              3














              It could be the time of day. Often red-eye flights are cheaper, or business-hour flights are more expensive. The MAD -> GRU one could be a really convenient and popular flight, and as such they can charge more for it, while the MAD-> GRU -> GIG one may be leaving at 4am and arriving at an awful time as well, but it's convenient for them to relocate planes then or something, so they offer a lower price to fill the plane.



              In addition, landing charges may vary at different times of the day, to get a spot in the queue or at the terminal during peak times will cost more.



              Airports charge the airlines quite a bit for premium slots :)






              share|improve this answer


















              • 2





                this argument does not work for identical flights. Please see the following; travel.stackexchange.com/questions/50170/…. The 1st leg of the 1-stop flight is the identically same flight as the direct flight

                – Matt
                Jun 27 '15 at 10:36















              3














              It could be the time of day. Often red-eye flights are cheaper, or business-hour flights are more expensive. The MAD -> GRU one could be a really convenient and popular flight, and as such they can charge more for it, while the MAD-> GRU -> GIG one may be leaving at 4am and arriving at an awful time as well, but it's convenient for them to relocate planes then or something, so they offer a lower price to fill the plane.



              In addition, landing charges may vary at different times of the day, to get a spot in the queue or at the terminal during peak times will cost more.



              Airports charge the airlines quite a bit for premium slots :)






              share|improve this answer


















              • 2





                this argument does not work for identical flights. Please see the following; travel.stackexchange.com/questions/50170/…. The 1st leg of the 1-stop flight is the identically same flight as the direct flight

                – Matt
                Jun 27 '15 at 10:36













              3












              3








              3







              It could be the time of day. Often red-eye flights are cheaper, or business-hour flights are more expensive. The MAD -> GRU one could be a really convenient and popular flight, and as such they can charge more for it, while the MAD-> GRU -> GIG one may be leaving at 4am and arriving at an awful time as well, but it's convenient for them to relocate planes then or something, so they offer a lower price to fill the plane.



              In addition, landing charges may vary at different times of the day, to get a spot in the queue or at the terminal during peak times will cost more.



              Airports charge the airlines quite a bit for premium slots :)






              share|improve this answer













              It could be the time of day. Often red-eye flights are cheaper, or business-hour flights are more expensive. The MAD -> GRU one could be a really convenient and popular flight, and as such they can charge more for it, while the MAD-> GRU -> GIG one may be leaving at 4am and arriving at an awful time as well, but it's convenient for them to relocate planes then or something, so they offer a lower price to fill the plane.



              In addition, landing charges may vary at different times of the day, to get a spot in the queue or at the terminal during peak times will cost more.



              Airports charge the airlines quite a bit for premium slots :)







              share|improve this answer












              share|improve this answer



              share|improve this answer










              answered Feb 8 '12 at 0:21









              Mark MayoMark Mayo

              130k775711291




              130k775711291







              • 2





                this argument does not work for identical flights. Please see the following; travel.stackexchange.com/questions/50170/…. The 1st leg of the 1-stop flight is the identically same flight as the direct flight

                – Matt
                Jun 27 '15 at 10:36












              • 2





                this argument does not work for identical flights. Please see the following; travel.stackexchange.com/questions/50170/…. The 1st leg of the 1-stop flight is the identically same flight as the direct flight

                – Matt
                Jun 27 '15 at 10:36







              2




              2





              this argument does not work for identical flights. Please see the following; travel.stackexchange.com/questions/50170/…. The 1st leg of the 1-stop flight is the identically same flight as the direct flight

              – Matt
              Jun 27 '15 at 10:36





              this argument does not work for identical flights. Please see the following; travel.stackexchange.com/questions/50170/…. The 1st leg of the 1-stop flight is the identically same flight as the direct flight

              – Matt
              Jun 27 '15 at 10:36











              1














              The most comprehensive and direct answer is “because the airline figured they could sell one of this seats at a higher price”. Time of day, convenience, competition, costs all figure in what's acceptable to the passengers and whether the airline can stay in business but none of this directly dictates price.






              share|improve this answer



























                1














                The most comprehensive and direct answer is “because the airline figured they could sell one of this seats at a higher price”. Time of day, convenience, competition, costs all figure in what's acceptable to the passengers and whether the airline can stay in business but none of this directly dictates price.






                share|improve this answer

























                  1












                  1








                  1







                  The most comprehensive and direct answer is “because the airline figured they could sell one of this seats at a higher price”. Time of day, convenience, competition, costs all figure in what's acceptable to the passengers and whether the airline can stay in business but none of this directly dictates price.






                  share|improve this answer













                  The most comprehensive and direct answer is “because the airline figured they could sell one of this seats at a higher price”. Time of day, convenience, competition, costs all figure in what's acceptable to the passengers and whether the airline can stay in business but none of this directly dictates price.







                  share|improve this answer












                  share|improve this answer



                  share|improve this answer










                  answered Aug 2 '14 at 16:54









                  RelaxedRelaxed

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