If I stay equal duration in every Schengen country, where do I apply for a visa?
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If I visit every Schengen state for equal duration, then am I eligible to apply for a Schengen visa with the embassy or consulate of any country?
visas schengen applications
edited Jul 14 '17 at 19:46
Revetahw
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up vote
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down vote
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If I visit every Schengen state for equal duration, then am I eligible to apply for a Schengen visa with the embassy or consulate of any country?
visas schengen applications
edited Jul 14 '17 at 19:46
Revetahw
13.3k75690
asked Jul 14 '17 at 18:12
Ace
20518
add a comment |
up vote
11
down vote
favorite
up vote
11
down vote
favorite
If I visit every Schengen state for equal duration, then am I eligible to apply for a Schengen visa with the embassy or consulate of any country?
visas schengen applications
edited Jul 14 '17 at 19:46
Revetahw
13.3k75690
asked Jul 14 '17 at 18:12
Ace
20518
If I visit every Schengen state for equal duration, then am I eligible to apply for a Schengen visa with the embassy or consulate of any country?
visas schengen applications
visas schengen applications
edited Jul 14 '17 at 19:46
Revetahw
13.3k75690
asked Jul 14 '17 at 18:12
Ace
20518
edited Jul 14 '17 at 19:46
Revetahw
13.3k75690
asked Jul 14 '17 at 18:12
Ace
20518
edited Jul 14 '17 at 19:46
Revetahw
13.3k75690
edited Jul 14 '17 at 19:46
Revetahw
13.3k75690
edited Jul 14 '17 at 19:46
Revetahw
13.3k75690
13.3k75690
asked Jul 14 '17 at 18:12
Ace
20518
asked Jul 14 '17 at 18:12
Ace
20518
asked Jul 14 '17 at 18:12
Ace
20518
20518
add a comment |
add a comment |
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
up vote
25
down vote
accepted
The Schengen Visa Code is explicit about this. You must first consider whether your trip has a main destination. If, for example, you're attending a conference in one of those countries, and that is the principal reason for your trip, then you must apply in the country where the conference is being held.
If there is no other means for determining the main destination, then you use the duration of stay to determine the main destination. You have already ruled that out, because you are staying an equal amount of time in each country you will visit.
In such a case, you should apply to the country where you will enter the Schengen area.
This is governed by Article 5:
Article 5
Member State competent for examining and deciding on an application
1. The Member State competent for examining and deciding on an application for a uniform visa shall be:
(a) the Member State whose territory constitutes the sole destination of the visit(s);
(b) if the visit includes more than one destination, the Member State whose territory constitutes the main destination of the visit(s) in terms of the length or purpose of stay; or
(c) if no main destination can be determined, the Member State whose external border the applicant intends to cross in order to enter the territory of the Member States.
edited Jul 15 '17 at 9:39
k2moo4
3,3251125
answered Jul 14 '17 at 18:34
phoog
66.8k10147213
8
Interestingly those rules would imply that if you intend to stay equally long in two countries and happen to be travelling through a third country as you enter you would have to apply in that third country even if you are only there on transit.
– kasperd
Jul 14 '17 at 20:50
3
Or you could measure the time up to 1 hour precision and most likely you won't incur in equal durations. :P
– Andrea Lazzarotto
Jul 14 '17 at 23:49
2
@AndreaLazzarotto hour precision doesn't seem precise enough, picosecond should be good enough for visa purposes.
– user33319
Jul 15 '17 at 10:33
3
@HagenVonEitzen as you enter. Someone spending a month each in Germany and Spain who flies to Germany with a connection in Paris would indeed have to apply to France.
– phoog
Jul 15 '17 at 11:18
3
@HagenvonEitzen Say you live in Serbia and want to visit Austria and Slovakia. If you stay equally long in each country and thus neither can be determined to be your main destination, the country where you enter is where you would have to apply. However if you are driving from Serbia to either of those countries you are likely to enter Schengen through the Hungarian border. So you'd have to apply in Hungary even though you are just driving straight through Hungary.
– kasperd
Jul 15 '17 at 11:26
|
show 1 more comment
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
1 Answer
1
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
active
oldest
votes
up vote
25
down vote
accepted
The Schengen Visa Code is explicit about this. You must first consider whether your trip has a main destination. If, for example, you're attending a conference in one of those countries, and that is the principal reason for your trip, then you must apply in the country where the conference is being held.
If there is no other means for determining the main destination, then you use the duration of stay to determine the main destination. You have already ruled that out, because you are staying an equal amount of time in each country you will visit.
In such a case, you should apply to the country where you will enter the Schengen area.
This is governed by Article 5:
Article 5
Member State competent for examining and deciding on an application
1. The Member State competent for examining and deciding on an application for a uniform visa shall be:
(a) the Member State whose territory constitutes the sole destination of the visit(s);
(b) if the visit includes more than one destination, the Member State whose territory constitutes the main destination of the visit(s) in terms of the length or purpose of stay; or
(c) if no main destination can be determined, the Member State whose external border the applicant intends to cross in order to enter the territory of the Member States.
edited Jul 15 '17 at 9:39
k2moo4
3,3251125
answered Jul 14 '17 at 18:34
phoog
66.8k10147213
8
Interestingly those rules would imply that if you intend to stay equally long in two countries and happen to be travelling through a third country as you enter you would have to apply in that third country even if you are only there on transit.
– kasperd
Jul 14 '17 at 20:50
3
Or you could measure the time up to 1 hour precision and most likely you won't incur in equal durations. :P
– Andrea Lazzarotto
Jul 14 '17 at 23:49
2
@AndreaLazzarotto hour precision doesn't seem precise enough, picosecond should be good enough for visa purposes.
– user33319
Jul 15 '17 at 10:33
3
@HagenVonEitzen as you enter. Someone spending a month each in Germany and Spain who flies to Germany with a connection in Paris would indeed have to apply to France.
– phoog
Jul 15 '17 at 11:18
3
@HagenvonEitzen Say you live in Serbia and want to visit Austria and Slovakia. If you stay equally long in each country and thus neither can be determined to be your main destination, the country where you enter is where you would have to apply. However if you are driving from Serbia to either of those countries you are likely to enter Schengen through the Hungarian border. So you'd have to apply in Hungary even though you are just driving straight through Hungary.
– kasperd
Jul 15 '17 at 11:26
|
show 1 more comment
up vote
25
down vote
accepted
The Schengen Visa Code is explicit about this. You must first consider whether your trip has a main destination. If, for example, you're attending a conference in one of those countries, and that is the principal reason for your trip, then you must apply in the country where the conference is being held.
If there is no other means for determining the main destination, then you use the duration of stay to determine the main destination. You have already ruled that out, because you are staying an equal amount of time in each country you will visit.
In such a case, you should apply to the country where you will enter the Schengen area.
This is governed by Article 5:
Article 5
Member State competent for examining and deciding on an application
1. The Member State competent for examining and deciding on an application for a uniform visa shall be:
(a) the Member State whose territory constitutes the sole destination of the visit(s);
(b) if the visit includes more than one destination, the Member State whose territory constitutes the main destination of the visit(s) in terms of the length or purpose of stay; or
(c) if no main destination can be determined, the Member State whose external border the applicant intends to cross in order to enter the territory of the Member States.
edited Jul 15 '17 at 9:39
k2moo4
3,3251125
answered Jul 14 '17 at 18:34
phoog
66.8k10147213
8
Interestingly those rules would imply that if you intend to stay equally long in two countries and happen to be travelling through a third country as you enter you would have to apply in that third country even if you are only there on transit.
– kasperd
Jul 14 '17 at 20:50
3
Or you could measure the time up to 1 hour precision and most likely you won't incur in equal durations. :P
– Andrea Lazzarotto
Jul 14 '17 at 23:49
2
@AndreaLazzarotto hour precision doesn't seem precise enough, picosecond should be good enough for visa purposes.
– user33319
Jul 15 '17 at 10:33
3
@HagenVonEitzen as you enter. Someone spending a month each in Germany and Spain who flies to Germany with a connection in Paris would indeed have to apply to France.
– phoog
Jul 15 '17 at 11:18
3
@HagenvonEitzen Say you live in Serbia and want to visit Austria and Slovakia. If you stay equally long in each country and thus neither can be determined to be your main destination, the country where you enter is where you would have to apply. However if you are driving from Serbia to either of those countries you are likely to enter Schengen through the Hungarian border. So you'd have to apply in Hungary even though you are just driving straight through Hungary.
– kasperd
Jul 15 '17 at 11:26
|
show 1 more comment
up vote
25
down vote
accepted
up vote
25
down vote
accepted
The Schengen Visa Code is explicit about this. You must first consider whether your trip has a main destination. If, for example, you're attending a conference in one of those countries, and that is the principal reason for your trip, then you must apply in the country where the conference is being held.
If there is no other means for determining the main destination, then you use the duration of stay to determine the main destination. You have already ruled that out, because you are staying an equal amount of time in each country you will visit.
In such a case, you should apply to the country where you will enter the Schengen area.
This is governed by Article 5:
Article 5
Member State competent for examining and deciding on an application
1. The Member State competent for examining and deciding on an application for a uniform visa shall be:
(a) the Member State whose territory constitutes the sole destination of the visit(s);
(b) if the visit includes more than one destination, the Member State whose territory constitutes the main destination of the visit(s) in terms of the length or purpose of stay; or
(c) if no main destination can be determined, the Member State whose external border the applicant intends to cross in order to enter the territory of the Member States.
edited Jul 15 '17 at 9:39
k2moo4
3,3251125
answered Jul 14 '17 at 18:34
phoog
66.8k10147213
The Schengen Visa Code is explicit about this. You must first consider whether your trip has a main destination. If, for example, you're attending a conference in one of those countries, and that is the principal reason for your trip, then you must apply in the country where the conference is being held.
If there is no other means for determining the main destination, then you use the duration of stay to determine the main destination. You have already ruled that out, because you are staying an equal amount of time in each country you will visit.
In such a case, you should apply to the country where you will enter the Schengen area.
This is governed by Article 5:
Article 5
Member State competent for examining and deciding on an application
1. The Member State competent for examining and deciding on an application for a uniform visa shall be:
(a) the Member State whose territory constitutes the sole destination of the visit(s);
(b) if the visit includes more than one destination, the Member State whose territory constitutes the main destination of the visit(s) in terms of the length or purpose of stay; or
(c) if no main destination can be determined, the Member State whose external border the applicant intends to cross in order to enter the territory of the Member States.
edited Jul 15 '17 at 9:39
k2moo4
3,3251125
answered Jul 14 '17 at 18:34
phoog
66.8k10147213
edited Jul 15 '17 at 9:39
k2moo4
3,3251125
edited Jul 15 '17 at 9:39
k2moo4
3,3251125
edited Jul 15 '17 at 9:39
k2moo4
3,3251125
3,3251125
answered Jul 14 '17 at 18:34
phoog
66.8k10147213
answered Jul 14 '17 at 18:34
phoog
66.8k10147213
answered Jul 14 '17 at 18:34
phoog
66.8k10147213
66.8k10147213
8
Interestingly those rules would imply that if you intend to stay equally long in two countries and happen to be travelling through a third country as you enter you would have to apply in that third country even if you are only there on transit.
– kasperd
Jul 14 '17 at 20:50
3
Or you could measure the time up to 1 hour precision and most likely you won't incur in equal durations. :P
– Andrea Lazzarotto
Jul 14 '17 at 23:49
2
@AndreaLazzarotto hour precision doesn't seem precise enough, picosecond should be good enough for visa purposes.
– user33319
Jul 15 '17 at 10:33
3
@HagenVonEitzen as you enter. Someone spending a month each in Germany and Spain who flies to Germany with a connection in Paris would indeed have to apply to France.
– phoog
Jul 15 '17 at 11:18
3
@HagenvonEitzen Say you live in Serbia and want to visit Austria and Slovakia. If you stay equally long in each country and thus neither can be determined to be your main destination, the country where you enter is where you would have to apply. However if you are driving from Serbia to either of those countries you are likely to enter Schengen through the Hungarian border. So you'd have to apply in Hungary even though you are just driving straight through Hungary.
– kasperd
Jul 15 '17 at 11:26
|
show 1 more comment
8
Interestingly those rules would imply that if you intend to stay equally long in two countries and happen to be travelling through a third country as you enter you would have to apply in that third country even if you are only there on transit.
– kasperd
Jul 14 '17 at 20:50
3
Or you could measure the time up to 1 hour precision and most likely you won't incur in equal durations. :P
– Andrea Lazzarotto
Jul 14 '17 at 23:49
2
@AndreaLazzarotto hour precision doesn't seem precise enough, picosecond should be good enough for visa purposes.
– user33319
Jul 15 '17 at 10:33
3
@HagenVonEitzen as you enter. Someone spending a month each in Germany and Spain who flies to Germany with a connection in Paris would indeed have to apply to France.
– phoog
Jul 15 '17 at 11:18
3
@HagenvonEitzen Say you live in Serbia and want to visit Austria and Slovakia. If you stay equally long in each country and thus neither can be determined to be your main destination, the country where you enter is where you would have to apply. However if you are driving from Serbia to either of those countries you are likely to enter Schengen through the Hungarian border. So you'd have to apply in Hungary even though you are just driving straight through Hungary.
– kasperd
Jul 15 '17 at 11:26
8
8
Interestingly those rules would imply that if you intend to stay equally long in two countries and happen to be travelling through a third country as you enter you would have to apply in that third country even if you are only there on transit.
– kasperd
Jul 14 '17 at 20:50
Interestingly those rules would imply that if you intend to stay equally long in two countries and happen to be travelling through a third country as you enter you would have to apply in that third country even if you are only there on transit.
– kasperd
Jul 14 '17 at 20:50
3
3
Or you could measure the time up to 1 hour precision and most likely you won't incur in equal durations. :P
– Andrea Lazzarotto
Jul 14 '17 at 23:49
Or you could measure the time up to 1 hour precision and most likely you won't incur in equal durations. :P
– Andrea Lazzarotto
Jul 14 '17 at 23:49
2
2
@AndreaLazzarotto hour precision doesn't seem precise enough, picosecond should be good enough for visa purposes.
– user33319
Jul 15 '17 at 10:33
@AndreaLazzarotto hour precision doesn't seem precise enough, picosecond should be good enough for visa purposes.
– user33319
Jul 15 '17 at 10:33
3
3
@HagenVonEitzen as you enter. Someone spending a month each in Germany and Spain who flies to Germany with a connection in Paris would indeed have to apply to France.
– phoog
Jul 15 '17 at 11:18
@HagenVonEitzen as you enter. Someone spending a month each in Germany and Spain who flies to Germany with a connection in Paris would indeed have to apply to France.
– phoog
Jul 15 '17 at 11:18
3
3
@HagenvonEitzen Say you live in Serbia and want to visit Austria and Slovakia. If you stay equally long in each country and thus neither can be determined to be your main destination, the country where you enter is where you would have to apply. However if you are driving from Serbia to either of those countries you are likely to enter Schengen through the Hungarian border. So you'd have to apply in Hungary even though you are just driving straight through Hungary.
– kasperd
Jul 15 '17 at 11:26
@HagenvonEitzen Say you live in Serbia and want to visit Austria and Slovakia. If you stay equally long in each country and thus neither can be determined to be your main destination, the country where you enter is where you would have to apply. However if you are driving from Serbia to either of those countries you are likely to enter Schengen through the Hungarian border. So you'd have to apply in Hungary even though you are just driving straight through Hungary.
– kasperd
Jul 15 '17 at 11:26
|
show 1 more comment
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